Answering Pharmacology Questions
A. If you are familiar with the medication, use nursing knowledge to answer the question.
B. Remember that the question will identify the generic name and the trade name of the medication.
C. If the question identifies a medical diagnosis, then try to make a relationship between the medication and the diagnosis; for example you can determine that cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) is an antineoplastic medication if the question refers to a client with breast cancer who is taking this medication.
D. Try to determine the classification of the medication being addressed to assist in answering the question; identifying the classification will assist in determining a medication action and side effects (diltiazem [Cardizem] is a cardiac medication).
E. Recognize the common side effects associated with each medication classification and then relate the appropriate nursing interventions to each side effect; for example, if a side effect is hypertension, then the associated nursing intervention would be to monitor the blood pressure.
F. Learn medication that belongs to a classification by commonalities in their medication names; for example, medication that are xanthine bronchodilators end with “line” (theophylline).
G. Look at the medication name and use medical terminology to assist in determining the medication action; for example, Lopressors lowers (lo) the blood pressure (pressor).
H. If the question requires a medication calculation, remember that a calculator is available on the computer; talk yourself through each step to be sure the answer makes sense, and recheck the calculation before answering the question, particularly if the answer seems like an unusual dosage.
I. POINTS TO REMEMBER
1. Generally, the client should not take an antacid with medication because the antacid will affect the absorption of the medication,
2. Enteric-coated and sustained-release tablets should not be crushed; additionally, capsules should not be opened.
3. The client should never adjust or change a medication dose or abruptly stop taking a medication.
4. The nurse never adjusts or changes the client’s medication dosage and never discontinues a medication.
5. The client needs to avoid taking any over-the-counter medications or any other medications such as herbal preparations unless they are approved for use by the health care provider.
6. The client needs to avoid alcohol and smoking.
7. Medications are never administered if the order is difficult to read, is unclear, or identifies a medication dose that is not a normal one.
Your review guide for Nursing Board Examination, Nursing Training Schedules and Board Exam Test Taking Strategies. Nurse Licensure Examination (NLE) results and Nurse Licensure Examination answer keys. Nursing board exam questions and review materials. National Council Licensure Examination (NCLEX) questions, NCLEX exam, NCLEX review and NCLEX results.
 |
Showing posts with label Nursing Process. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Nursing Process. Show all posts
Nov 11, 2009
NURSING TEST TAKING STRATEGY XI: Use the Guidelines for Delegating and Assignment Making
Use the Guidelines for Delegating and Assignment Making
A. You may be asked a question that will require you to decide how you will delegate a task or assign clients to other health care providers.
B. Focus on the information in the question and what task or assignment is to be delegated.
C. Once you have determined what task or assignment is to be delegated, consider the client’s needs and match the client’s needs with the scope of practice of the health care providers identified in the question.
D. That nurse practice act and any practice limitations define which aspects of care can be delegated and which must be performed by the registered nurse.
E. Generally, Non-invasive interventions such as skin care range of motion exercises, ambulation, grooming, and hygiene measures can be assigned to a nursing assistant.
F. A licensed practical nurse can perform the tasks that a nursing assistant can perform an additionally can perform certain invasive tasks such as dressings, suctioning, urinary catheterization, and administering medications orally or by subcutaneous or intramuscular injections.
G. The registered nurse can perform the tasks that a nursing assistant can perform the tasks that a licensed practical nurse can perform and is responsible for assessment and planning care, supervising care, initiating teaching, and administering medications intravenously.
PRACTICE QUESTION: the Guidelines for Delegating and Assignment Making
A nurse is planning the client assignments for the day and has a licensed practical nurse (LPN) and a nursing assistant on the nursing team. Which client would the nurse most appropriately assign to the LPN?
1. A client with stable congestive heart failure who has early stage of Alzheimer’s disease.
2. A client who was treated for dehydration and is weak and needs assistance with bathing.
3. A client with emphysema who is receiving oxygen at 2L by nasal cannula and becomes dyspneic on exertion.
4. A client who is scheduled for an electrocardiogram and a chest x-ray
Answer: 3
Test-Taking Strategy: The nurse would most appropriately assign the client with emphysema to the LPN. This client has an airway problem and has the highest priority needs from the clients presented in the options. The clients described in option 1, 2, and 4 can be cared for appropriately by the nursing assistant. Remember to match the client’s needs with the scope of practice of the health care provider.
A. You may be asked a question that will require you to decide how you will delegate a task or assign clients to other health care providers.
B. Focus on the information in the question and what task or assignment is to be delegated.
C. Once you have determined what task or assignment is to be delegated, consider the client’s needs and match the client’s needs with the scope of practice of the health care providers identified in the question.
D. That nurse practice act and any practice limitations define which aspects of care can be delegated and which must be performed by the registered nurse.
E. Generally, Non-invasive interventions such as skin care range of motion exercises, ambulation, grooming, and hygiene measures can be assigned to a nursing assistant.
F. A licensed practical nurse can perform the tasks that a nursing assistant can perform an additionally can perform certain invasive tasks such as dressings, suctioning, urinary catheterization, and administering medications orally or by subcutaneous or intramuscular injections.
G. The registered nurse can perform the tasks that a nursing assistant can perform the tasks that a licensed practical nurse can perform and is responsible for assessment and planning care, supervising care, initiating teaching, and administering medications intravenously.
PRACTICE QUESTION: the Guidelines for Delegating and Assignment Making
A nurse is planning the client assignments for the day and has a licensed practical nurse (LPN) and a nursing assistant on the nursing team. Which client would the nurse most appropriately assign to the LPN?
1. A client with stable congestive heart failure who has early stage of Alzheimer’s disease.
2. A client who was treated for dehydration and is weak and needs assistance with bathing.
3. A client with emphysema who is receiving oxygen at 2L by nasal cannula and becomes dyspneic on exertion.
4. A client who is scheduled for an electrocardiogram and a chest x-ray
Answer: 3
Test-Taking Strategy: The nurse would most appropriately assign the client with emphysema to the LPN. This client has an airway problem and has the highest priority needs from the clients presented in the options. The clients described in option 1, 2, and 4 can be cared for appropriately by the nursing assistant. Remember to match the client’s needs with the scope of practice of the health care provider.
Nov 9, 2009
NURSING TEST TAKING STRATEGY X: Look for the Umbrella Options
Look for the Umbrella Options
A. When answering a question, if you note that more than one option appears to be correct, look for the umbrella option (also known as global option or comprehensive option).
B. The umbrella option is one that is general statement and may contain the ideas of the other options within it.
C. The umbrella option will be the correct answer.
PRACTICE QUESTION: Look for the Umbrella Option
A nurse in the emergency room receives a telephone call from an emergency medical service and is told that several victims who survived a plane crash and are suffering from cold exposure will be transported to the hospital. The initial nursing action of the emergency room nurse is which of the following?
1. Supply the trauma rooms with bottles of sterile water and normal saline.
2. Call the laundry apartment and ask the department to send as many warm blankets as possible to the emergency room.
3. Call the nursing supervisor to activate the emergency disaster plan.
4. Call the Intensive Care Unit to request that nurses be sent to the emergency room.
Answer: 3
Test-taking Strategy: Option 3 is the umbrella option. Activating the agency disaster plan will ensure that the interventions in options 1, 2, and 4 will occur. Remember the umbrella option embraces the ideas of other options within it.
A. When answering a question, if you note that more than one option appears to be correct, look for the umbrella option (also known as global option or comprehensive option).
B. The umbrella option is one that is general statement and may contain the ideas of the other options within it.
C. The umbrella option will be the correct answer.
PRACTICE QUESTION: Look for the Umbrella Option
A nurse in the emergency room receives a telephone call from an emergency medical service and is told that several victims who survived a plane crash and are suffering from cold exposure will be transported to the hospital. The initial nursing action of the emergency room nurse is which of the following?
1. Supply the trauma rooms with bottles of sterile water and normal saline.
2. Call the laundry apartment and ask the department to send as many warm blankets as possible to the emergency room.
3. Call the nursing supervisor to activate the emergency disaster plan.
4. Call the Intensive Care Unit to request that nurses be sent to the emergency room.
Answer: 3
Test-taking Strategy: Option 3 is the umbrella option. Activating the agency disaster plan will ensure that the interventions in options 1, 2, and 4 will occur. Remember the umbrella option embraces the ideas of other options within it.
Sep 15, 2009
NURSING TEST TAKING STRATEGY VIII: Eliminate Options that contain Absolute Words
Eliminate Options that contain Absolute Words
A. As you read each option, look for absolute words.
B. Absolute words tend to make an option incorrect, and if you note an absolute word in an option, eliminate that option.
C. Some of these absolute words include all, always, every, must, none, never, and only.
PRACTICE QUESTION: Eliminate Options that Contain Absolute Words
A nurse is providing safety instructions to the mother of child with hemophilia and tells the mother to do which of the following to promote a safe environment for the child?
1. Remove toys with sharp edges from the child’s toy box.
2. Allow the child to play with toys only if a parent is present.
3. Place a helmet and elbow pads on the child everyday.
4. Allow the child to play indoors only.
Answer: 1
Test-taking Strategy: Eliminate options that contain absolute words. Option 2 and 4 contain the absolute word only. Option 3 contains absolute word every. Remember that absolute words tend to make an option incorrect.
A. As you read each option, look for absolute words.
B. Absolute words tend to make an option incorrect, and if you note an absolute word in an option, eliminate that option.
C. Some of these absolute words include all, always, every, must, none, never, and only.
PRACTICE QUESTION: Eliminate Options that Contain Absolute Words
A nurse is providing safety instructions to the mother of child with hemophilia and tells the mother to do which of the following to promote a safe environment for the child?
1. Remove toys with sharp edges from the child’s toy box.
2. Allow the child to play with toys only if a parent is present.
3. Place a helmet and elbow pads on the child everyday.
4. Allow the child to play indoors only.
Answer: 1
Test-taking Strategy: Eliminate options that contain absolute words. Option 2 and 4 contain the absolute word only. Option 3 contains absolute word every. Remember that absolute words tend to make an option incorrect.
Sep 13, 2009
NURSING TEST TAKING STRATEGY VII: Eliminating Similar Options
A. When answering the question, use the process of elimination and look for similar options.
B. If any of the options include the same idea, then they are incorrect and can be eliminated.
C. Remember that there is only one correct option, and the answer to the question is the option that is different.
PRACTICE QUESTION: Eliminate Similar Options
A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients’ medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for excess fluid volume?
1. The client with an ileostomy
2. The client taking diuretics
3. The client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning
4. The client with renal failure
Answer: 4
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on what the question is asking: the client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Think about the pathophysiology associated with each condition identified in the options. The only client that retains fluid is the client with renal failure. The client with an ileostomy, the client taking diuretics, and the client requiring gastrointestinal suctioning all lose fluid. Remember eliminate similar options.
B. If any of the options include the same idea, then they are incorrect and can be eliminated.
C. Remember that there is only one correct option, and the answer to the question is the option that is different.
PRACTICE QUESTION: Eliminate Similar Options
A nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients’ medical records, the nurse determines that which client is at risk for excess fluid volume?
1. The client with an ileostomy
2. The client taking diuretics
3. The client who requires gastrointestinal suctioning
4. The client with renal failure
Answer: 4
Test-Taking Strategy: Focus on what the question is asking: the client is at risk for excess fluid volume. Think about the pathophysiology associated with each condition identified in the options. The only client that retains fluid is the client with renal failure. The client with an ileostomy, the client taking diuretics, and the client requiring gastrointestinal suctioning all lose fluid. Remember eliminate similar options.
Sep 11, 2009
NURSING TEST TAKING STRATEGY VI: Client Needs
A. Safe, Effective Care Environment
1. These questions address the nurse’s role in providing and directing care that will ensure an environment that promotes protecting the client, family or significant others and other health care personnel.
2. Content addressed in these questions relates to the nursing role of coordinating and integrating cost-effective care, supervising and/or collaborating with members of the multidisciplinary health care team, and environmental safety.
3. Be alert to safety needs addressed in a question, and remember the importance of hand washing, call bells, bed positioning, the appropriate use of side rails, and standard precautions.
B. Physiological Integrity
1. These questions address the nurse’s role in promoting physical health and well-being in the client by providing care and comfort, reducing client risk potential, and managing the client’s health alterations.
2. Content addressed in these questions relates to basic care and comfort, pharmacological and parenteral therapies, reducing the risk of the development of complications, and managing and providing care to clients with acute, chronic, or life-threatening conditions.
3. Remember that physiological needs are a priority and are addressed first.
4. Use the ABC’s airway, breathing, and circulation; Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory; and the steps of the nursing process when selecting an option addressing physiological integrity.
C. Psychosocial Integrity
1. These questions address the nurse’s role in providing nursing care that supports and promotes the emotional, mental, and social well-being of the client and significant others.
2. Content addressed in these questions relates to promoting the client’s or significant other’s ability to cope, adapt or problem solve in situations such as illness or stressful events and to providing care to clients with maladaptive behavior or acute or chronic mental illness.
3. In this Client Needs category you may be asked communication-type questions that relate to how you would respond to a client, a client’s family member or significant other, or to other health care team members.
4. Use therapeutic communication techniques to answer communication questions because of their effectiveness in the communication process.
5. Remember to select the answer that focuses on the client’s, client’s family members or significant other’s feelings, concerns, anxieties, or fears.
PRACTICE QUESTION: Communication
A mother says to the nurse. “I am afraid that my child might have another seizure.” Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?
1. “Why worry about something that you cannot control?”
2. “Most children will never experience a second seizure.”
3. “Tell me what frightens you the most about seizures.”
4. “Acetaminophen (Tylenol) can prevent another seizure from occurring.”
Answer: 3
Test-taking Strategy: Option 3 is the only option that addresses the client’s fears. Option 1 blocks communication because it states that the mother should not worry. Options 2 and 4 are incorrect because the nurse is giving false assurance that a seizure will not reoccur or can be prevented in this child. Remember focus on feelings, concerns, anxieties or fears.
D. Health Promotion and Maintenance
1. These questions address the nurse’s role in providing and directing nursing care that prevents health problems, provides early detection of health problems, and provides and directs care that incorporates knowledge of expected growth and development principles.
2. Content addressed in these questions relates to assisting the client and significant others through the normal stages of growth and development and assisting the client and significant others to develop health practices that promote wellness and to recognize alterations in health care status.
3. Use the teaching/learning theory if the question addresses client education, remembering that client motivation and client readiness to learn is the first priority.
4. Be alert to false response questions that address health promotion and maintenance and client education.
1. These questions address the nurse’s role in providing and directing care that will ensure an environment that promotes protecting the client, family or significant others and other health care personnel.
2. Content addressed in these questions relates to the nursing role of coordinating and integrating cost-effective care, supervising and/or collaborating with members of the multidisciplinary health care team, and environmental safety.
3. Be alert to safety needs addressed in a question, and remember the importance of hand washing, call bells, bed positioning, the appropriate use of side rails, and standard precautions.
B. Physiological Integrity
1. These questions address the nurse’s role in promoting physical health and well-being in the client by providing care and comfort, reducing client risk potential, and managing the client’s health alterations.
2. Content addressed in these questions relates to basic care and comfort, pharmacological and parenteral therapies, reducing the risk of the development of complications, and managing and providing care to clients with acute, chronic, or life-threatening conditions.
3. Remember that physiological needs are a priority and are addressed first.
4. Use the ABC’s airway, breathing, and circulation; Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory; and the steps of the nursing process when selecting an option addressing physiological integrity.
C. Psychosocial Integrity
1. These questions address the nurse’s role in providing nursing care that supports and promotes the emotional, mental, and social well-being of the client and significant others.
2. Content addressed in these questions relates to promoting the client’s or significant other’s ability to cope, adapt or problem solve in situations such as illness or stressful events and to providing care to clients with maladaptive behavior or acute or chronic mental illness.
3. In this Client Needs category you may be asked communication-type questions that relate to how you would respond to a client, a client’s family member or significant other, or to other health care team members.
4. Use therapeutic communication techniques to answer communication questions because of their effectiveness in the communication process.
5. Remember to select the answer that focuses on the client’s, client’s family members or significant other’s feelings, concerns, anxieties, or fears.
PRACTICE QUESTION: Communication
A mother says to the nurse. “I am afraid that my child might have another seizure.” Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?
1. “Why worry about something that you cannot control?”
2. “Most children will never experience a second seizure.”
3. “Tell me what frightens you the most about seizures.”
4. “Acetaminophen (Tylenol) can prevent another seizure from occurring.”
Answer: 3
Test-taking Strategy: Option 3 is the only option that addresses the client’s fears. Option 1 blocks communication because it states that the mother should not worry. Options 2 and 4 are incorrect because the nurse is giving false assurance that a seizure will not reoccur or can be prevented in this child. Remember focus on feelings, concerns, anxieties or fears.
D. Health Promotion and Maintenance
1. These questions address the nurse’s role in providing and directing nursing care that prevents health problems, provides early detection of health problems, and provides and directs care that incorporates knowledge of expected growth and development principles.
2. Content addressed in these questions relates to assisting the client and significant others through the normal stages of growth and development and assisting the client and significant others to develop health practices that promote wellness and to recognize alterations in health care status.
3. Use the teaching/learning theory if the question addresses client education, remembering that client motivation and client readiness to learn is the first priority.
4. Be alert to false response questions that address health promotion and maintenance and client education.
Sep 9, 2009
NURSING TEST TAKING STRATEGY V: G. Steps of the Nursing Process - EVALUATION
V: Questions that Require Prioritizing
7. EVALUATION
a. Evaluation questions focus on comparing the actual outcomes of care with the actual outcomes of care with the expected outcomes and focus on how the nurse should monitor or make a judgement concerning a client’s response to therapy or to a nursing action.
b. These questions address evaluating the client’s ability to implement self-care, health care members’ ability to implement care, and the process of communicating and documenting evaluation findings.
c. In an evaluation question, be alert to false response question because they are used frequently in evaluation-type questions, and the question may ask for a client statement that indicates accurate or inaccurate information related to the issue of the question.
PRACTICE QUESTION: The Nursing Process – Evaluation
A client with multiple sclerosis has been taking oxybutynin (Ditropan). The nurse determines the degree of effectiveness of the medication by asking the client about changes in the following:
1. Extent of muscle spasms
2. Level of fatigue
3. Bowel movements
4. Pattern of urination
Answer: 4
Test-Taking Strategy: This is an evaluation question. Note the key words determine the degree of effectiveness. Oxybutynin is antispasmodic used to relieve symptoms of urinary urgency, frequency, nocturia, and incontinence in clients with uninhibited or reflex neurogenic bladder. Recalling that this medication is used to treat bladder dysfunction will direct you to option 4. Remember evaluation is the fifth step of the nursing process.
7. EVALUATION
a. Evaluation questions focus on comparing the actual outcomes of care with the actual outcomes of care with the expected outcomes and focus on how the nurse should monitor or make a judgement concerning a client’s response to therapy or to a nursing action.
b. These questions address evaluating the client’s ability to implement self-care, health care members’ ability to implement care, and the process of communicating and documenting evaluation findings.
c. In an evaluation question, be alert to false response question because they are used frequently in evaluation-type questions, and the question may ask for a client statement that indicates accurate or inaccurate information related to the issue of the question.
PRACTICE QUESTION: The Nursing Process – Evaluation
A client with multiple sclerosis has been taking oxybutynin (Ditropan). The nurse determines the degree of effectiveness of the medication by asking the client about changes in the following:
1. Extent of muscle spasms
2. Level of fatigue
3. Bowel movements
4. Pattern of urination
Answer: 4
Test-Taking Strategy: This is an evaluation question. Note the key words determine the degree of effectiveness. Oxybutynin is antispasmodic used to relieve symptoms of urinary urgency, frequency, nocturia, and incontinence in clients with uninhibited or reflex neurogenic bladder. Recalling that this medication is used to treat bladder dysfunction will direct you to option 4. Remember evaluation is the fifth step of the nursing process.
Sep 7, 2009
NURSING TEST TAKING STRATEGY V: G. Steps of the Nursing Process - IMPLEMENTATION
V: Questions that Require Prioritizing
6. IMPLEMENTATION
a. Implementation questions address the process of organizing and managing care, counselling and teaching, providing care to achieve established goals, supervising and coordinating care, and communicating and documenting nursing interventions.
b. This examination is about nursing, so focus on the nursing action rather than on the medical action unless the question is asking you what prescription (medical order) is anticipated.
c. The only client about whom you need to be concerned is the client in the question that you are answering; remember that this client is your only assigned client.
d. Answer the questions as if the situations were textbook and ideal and the nurse had all the time and resources needed and readily available at the client’s bedside.
PRACTICE QUESTION: The Nursing Process – Implementation
A nurse is caring for a client with angina pectoris who begins to experience chest pain. The nurse administers a sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet sublingually as prescribed, but the pain is unrelieved. The nurse should take which of the following actions next?
1. Contact the physician
2. Call the client’s family.
3. Administer another nitroglycerin tablet.
4. Reposition the client.
Answer: 3
Test-Taking Strategy: Implementation questions address the process of organizing and managing care. This question also requires that you prioritize the nursing actions. Note the key word next. Recalling that the nurse would administer three nitroglycerin tablets 5 minutes apart from each other to relieve chest pain will assist in directing you to option 3. Remember implementation is the fourth step of the nursing process.
6. IMPLEMENTATION
a. Implementation questions address the process of organizing and managing care, counselling and teaching, providing care to achieve established goals, supervising and coordinating care, and communicating and documenting nursing interventions.
b. This examination is about nursing, so focus on the nursing action rather than on the medical action unless the question is asking you what prescription (medical order) is anticipated.
c. The only client about whom you need to be concerned is the client in the question that you are answering; remember that this client is your only assigned client.
d. Answer the questions as if the situations were textbook and ideal and the nurse had all the time and resources needed and readily available at the client’s bedside.
PRACTICE QUESTION: The Nursing Process – Implementation
A nurse is caring for a client with angina pectoris who begins to experience chest pain. The nurse administers a sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet sublingually as prescribed, but the pain is unrelieved. The nurse should take which of the following actions next?
1. Contact the physician
2. Call the client’s family.
3. Administer another nitroglycerin tablet.
4. Reposition the client.
Answer: 3
Test-Taking Strategy: Implementation questions address the process of organizing and managing care. This question also requires that you prioritize the nursing actions. Note the key word next. Recalling that the nurse would administer three nitroglycerin tablets 5 minutes apart from each other to relieve chest pain will assist in directing you to option 3. Remember implementation is the fourth step of the nursing process.
Aug 16, 2009
NURSING TEST TAKING STRATEGY V: G. Steps of the Nursing Process - PLANNING
V: Questions that Require Prioritizing
5. PLANNING
a. Planning questions require prioritizing nursing diagnosis, determining goals and outcome criteria for goals of care, developing the plan of care, and communicating and documenting the plan of care.
b. Regarding nursing diagnoses, remember that actual client problems rather than potential or at risk client problems will most likely be the priority.
c. Remember that this is a nursing examination and the answer to the question most likely involves something that is included in the nursing care plan, rather than the medical plan.
PRACTICE QUESTION: The Nursing Process – Planning
A nurse develops a plan of care for a client with a cataract. Which nursing diagnosis is the priority?
1. Fear related to lost of eyesight
2. Social isolation related to decrease ability to mobilize in the community.
3. Disturbed Sensory Perception (visual) related to ocular lens opacity.
4. Risk for injury related to decrease vision.
Answer: 3
Test-Taking Strategy: This question relates to planning nursing care and asks you to identify the priority nursing diagnosis. Use Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory to answer the questions. Remembering that physiological needs are the priority will direct you to option 3. Although Risk for Injury is a potential rather than an actual problem, according to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, safety is the second priority. Fear and Social Isolation are psychosocial needs. Remember planning is the third step of the nursing process.
5. PLANNING
a. Planning questions require prioritizing nursing diagnosis, determining goals and outcome criteria for goals of care, developing the plan of care, and communicating and documenting the plan of care.
b. Regarding nursing diagnoses, remember that actual client problems rather than potential or at risk client problems will most likely be the priority.
c. Remember that this is a nursing examination and the answer to the question most likely involves something that is included in the nursing care plan, rather than the medical plan.
PRACTICE QUESTION: The Nursing Process – Planning
A nurse develops a plan of care for a client with a cataract. Which nursing diagnosis is the priority?
1. Fear related to lost of eyesight
2. Social isolation related to decrease ability to mobilize in the community.
3. Disturbed Sensory Perception (visual) related to ocular lens opacity.
4. Risk for injury related to decrease vision.
Answer: 3
Test-Taking Strategy: This question relates to planning nursing care and asks you to identify the priority nursing diagnosis. Use Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory to answer the questions. Remembering that physiological needs are the priority will direct you to option 3. Although Risk for Injury is a potential rather than an actual problem, according to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory, safety is the second priority. Fear and Social Isolation are psychosocial needs. Remember planning is the third step of the nursing process.
Aug 14, 2009
NURSING TEST TAKING STRATEGY V: G. Steps of the Nursing Process - ANALYSIS
V: Questions that Require Prioritizing
4. ANALYSIS
a. Analysis questions are the most difficult questions because they require understanding of the principles of physiological responses and require interpretation of the data based on assessment.
b. Analysis questions require critical thinking and determining the rationale for the therapeutic interventions that may be addressed in the question.
c. Analysis questions may address the formulation of a nursing diagnosis and the communication and documentation of the results of the process of analysis.
4. ANALYSIS
a. Analysis questions are the most difficult questions because they require understanding of the principles of physiological responses and require interpretation of the data based on assessment.
b. Analysis questions require critical thinking and determining the rationale for the therapeutic interventions that may be addressed in the question.
c. Analysis questions may address the formulation of a nursing diagnosis and the communication and documentation of the results of the process of analysis.
| PRACTICE QUESTION: The Nursing Process – Analysis A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of an infant suspected of having hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse most likely expect to note in this infant? 1. A blood pH of 7.50 2. A blood pH of 7.30 3. A blood bicarbonate of 22 mEq/L 4. A blood bicarbonate of 19 mEq/L Answer: 1 Test-Taking Strategy: An understanding of the physiology associated with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and that metabolic alkalosis is likely to occur as a result of vomiting is necessary. Next, the nurse must know which laboratory findings would be noted in this acid-base balance condition. Analysis of this data will direct you to the correct option. Remember analysis is the second step of the nursing process. |
Nov 30, 2008
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST IV
100 Item Exam On Fundamentals Of Nursing : Nursing Process, Physical and Health Assessment and Routine Procedures
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST IV
Content Outline
1. The nursing process
2. Physical Assessment
3. Health Assessment
3.a Temperature
3.b Pulse
3.c Respiration
3.d Blood pressure
4. Routine Procedures
4.a Urinalysis specimen collection
4.b Sputum specimen collection
4.c Urine examination
4.d Positioning pre-procedure
4.e Stool specimen collection
1. She is the first one to coin the term “NURSING PROCESS” She introduced 3 steps of nursing process which are Observation, Ministration and Validation.
A. Nightingale
B. Johnson
C. Rogers
D. Hall
2. The American Nurses association formulated an innovation of the Nursing process. Today, how many distinct steps are there in the nursing process?
A. APIE – 4
B. ADPIE – 5
C. ADOPIE – 6
D. ADOPIER – 7
3. They are the first one to suggest a 4 step nursing process which are : APIE , or assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
1. Yura
2. Walsh
3. Roy
4. Knowles
A. 1,2
B. 1,3
C. 3,4
D. 2,3
4. Which characteristic of nursing process is responsible for proper utilization of human resources, time and cost resources?
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
5. Which characteristic of nursing process addresses the INDIVIDUALIZED care a client must receive?
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
6. A characteristic of the nursing process that is essential to promote client satisfaction and progress. The care should also be relevant with the client’s needs.
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
7. Rhina, who has Menieres disease, said that her environment is moving. Which of the following is a valid assessment?
1. Rhina is giving an objective data
2. Rhina is giving a subjective data
3. The source of the data is primary
4. The source of the data is secondary
A. 1,3
B. 2,3
C. 2.4
D. 1,4
8. Nurse Angela, observe Joel who is very apprehensive over the impending operation. The client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis and asks lots of questions. Angela made a diagnosis of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE PROCEDURE. This is what type of Nursing Diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
9. Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado, who have undergone a BKA. Her diagnosis is SELF ESTEEM DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN BODY IMAGE. Although the client has not yet seen her lost leg, Angela already anticipated the diagnosis. This is what type of Diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
10. Nurse Angela is about to make a diagnosis but very unsure because the S/S the client is experiencing is not specific with her diagnosis of POWERLESSNESS R/T DIFFICULTY ACCEPTING LOSS OF LOVED ONE. She then focus on gathering data to refute or prove her diagnosis but her plans and interventions are already ongoing for the diagnosis. Which type of Diagnosis is this?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
11. Nurse Angela knew that Stephen Lee Mu Chin, has just undergone an operation with an incision near the diaphragm. She knew that this will contribute to some complications later on. She then should develop what type of Nursing diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
12. Which of the following Nursing diagnosis is INCORRECT?
A. Fluid volume deficit R/T Diarrhea
B. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side rails
C. Possible ineffective coping R/T Loss of loved one
D. Self esteem disturbance R/T Effects of surgical removal of the leg
13. Among the following statements, which should be given the HIGHEST priority?
A. Client is in extreme pain
B. Client’s blood pressure is 60/40
C. Client’s temperature is 40 deg. Centigrade
D. Client is cyanotic
14. Which of the following need is given a higher priority among others?
A. The client has attempted suicide and safety precaution is needed
B. The client has disturbance in his body image because of the recent operation
C. The client is depressed because her boyfriend left her all alone
D. The client is thirsty and dehydrated
15. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Client Goals?
A. They are specific, measurable, attainable and time bounded
B. They are general and broadly stated
C. They should answer for WHO, WHAT ACTIONS, WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES, HOW WELL and WHEN.
D. Example is : After discharge planning, Client demonstrated the proper psychomotor skills for insulin injection.
16. Which of the following is a NOT a correct statement of an Outcome criteria?
A. Ambulates 30 feet with a cane before discharge
B. Discusses fears and concerns regarding the surgical procedure
C. Demonstrates proper coughing and breathing technique after a teaching session
D. Reestablishes a normal pattern of elimination
17. Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE data?
A. Dizziness
B. Chest pain
C. Anxiety
D. Blue nails
18. A patient’s chart is what type of data source?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Can be A and B
19. All of the following are characteristic of the Nursing process except
A. Dynamic
B. Cyclical
C. Universal
D. Intrapersonal
20. Which of the following is true about the NURSING CARE PLAN?
A. It is nursing centered
B. Rationales are supported by interventions
C. Verbal
D. Atleast 2 goals are needed for every nursing diagnosis
21. A framework for health assessment that evaluates the effects of stressors to the mind, body and environment in relation with the ability of the client to perform ADL.
A. Functional health framework
B. Head to toe framework
C. Body system framework
D. Cephalocaudal framework
22. Client has undergone Upper GI and Lower GI series. Which type of health assessment framework is used in this situation?
A. Functional health framework
B. Head to toe framework
C. Body system framework
D. Cephalocaudal framework
23. Which of the following statement is true regarding temperature?
A. Oral temperature is more accurate than rectal temperature
B. The bulb used in Rectal temperature reading is pear shaped or round
C. The older the person, the higher his BMR
D. When the client is swimming, BMR Decreases
24. A type of heat loss that occurs when the heat is dissipated by air current
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Evaporation
25. Which of the following is TRUE about temperature?
A. The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.N
B. The lowest temperature is usually in the Afternoon, Around 12 P.M
C. Thyroxin decreases body temperature
D. Elderly people are risk for hyperthermia due to the absence of fats, Decreased thermoregulatory control and sedentary lifestyle.
26. Hyperpyrexia is a condition in which the temperature is greater than
A. 40 degree Celsius
B. 39 degree Celsius
C. 100 degree Fahrenheit
D. 105.8 degree Fahrenheit
27. Tympanic temperature is taken from John, A client who was brought recently into the ER due to frequent barking cough. The temperature reads 37.9 Degrees Celsius. As a nurse, you conclude that this temperature is
A. High
B. Low
C. At the low end of the normal range
D. At the high end of the normal range
28. John has a fever of 38.5 Deg. Celsius. It surges at around 40 Degrees and go back to 38.5 degrees 6 times today in a typical pattern. What kind of fever is John having?
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant
29. John has a fever of 39.5 degrees 2 days ago, But yesterday, he has a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees. Today, his temperature surges to 40 degrees. What type of fever is John having?
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant
30. John’s temperature 10 hours ago is a normal 36.5 degrees. 4 hours ago, He has a fever with a temperature of 38.9 Degrees. Right now, his temperature is back to normal. Which of the following best describe the fever john is having?
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant
31. The characteristic fever in Dengue Virus is characterized as:
A. Tricyclic
B. Bicyclic
C. Biphasic
D. Triphasic
32. When John has been given paracetamol, his fever was brought down dramatically from 40 degrees Celsius to 36.7 degrees in a matter of 10 minutes. The nurse would assess this event as:
A. The goal of reducing john’s fever has been met with full satisfaction of the outcome criteria
B. The desired goal has been partially met
C. The goal is not completely met
D. The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome criteria
33. What can you expect from Marianne, who is currently at the ONSET stage of fever?
A. Hot, flushed skin
B. Increase thirst
C. Convulsion
D. Pale,cold skin
34. Marianne is now at the Defervescence stage of the fever, which of the following is expected?
A. Delirium
B. Goose flesh
C. Cyanotic nail beds
D. Sweating
35. Considered as the most accessible and convenient method for temperature taking
A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Tympanic
D. Axillary
36. Considered as Safest and most non invasive method of temperature taking
A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Tympanic
D. Axillary
37. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication in taking ORAL temperature?
A. Quadriplegic
B. Presence of NGT
C. Dyspnea
D. Nausea and Vomitting
38. Which of the following is a contraindication in taking RECTAL temperature?
A. Unconscious
B. Neutropenic
C. NPO
D. Very young children
39. How long should the Rectal Thermometer be inserted to the clients anus?
A. 1 to 2 inches
B. .5 to 1.5 inches
C. 3 to 5 inches
D. 2 to 3 inches
40. In cleaning the thermometer after use, The direction of the cleaning to follow Medical Asepsis is :
A. From bulb to stem
B. From stem to bulb
C. From stem to stem
D. From bulb to bulb
41. How long should the thermometer stay in the Client’s Axilla?
A. 3 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 7 minutes
D. 10 minutes
42. Which of the following statement is TRUE about pulse?
A. Young person have higher pulse than older persons
B. Males have higher pulse rate than females after puberty
C. Digitalis has a positive chronotropic effect
D. In lying position, Pulse rate is higher
43. The following are correct actions when taking radial pulse except:
A. Put the palms downward
B. Use the thumb to palpate the artery
C. Use two or three fingers to palpate the pulse at the inner wrist
D. Assess the pulse rate, rhythm, volume and bilateral quality
44. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is termed as
A. Apical rate
B. Cardiac rate
C. Pulse deficit
D. Pulse pressure
45. Which of the following completely describes PULSUS PARADOXICUS?
A. A greater-than-normal increase in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
B. A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
C. Pulse is paradoxically low when client is in standing position and high when supine.
D. Pulse is paradoxically high when client is in standing position and low when supine.
46. Which of the following is TRUE about respiration?
A. I:E 2:1
B. I:E : 4:3
C I:E 1:1
D. I:E 1:2
47. Contains the pneumotaxic and the apneutic centers
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
48. Which of the following is responsible for deep and prolonged inspiration
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
49. Which of the following is responsible for the rhythm and quality of breathing?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
50. The primary respiratory center
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
51. Which of the following is TRUE about the mechanism of action of the Aortic and Carotid bodies?
A. If the BP is elevated, the RR increases
B. If the BP is elevated, the RR decreases
C. Elevated BP leads to Metabolic alkalosis
D. Low BP leads to Metabolic acidosis
52. All of the following factors correctly influence respiration except one. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Hydrocodone decreases RR
B. Stress increases RR
C. Increase temperature of the environment, Increase RR
D. Increase altitude, Increase RR
53. When does the heart receives blood from the coronary artery?
A. Systole
B. Diastole
C. When the valves opens
D. When the valves closes
54. Which of the following is more life threatening?
A. BP = 180/100
B. BP = 160/120
C. BP = 90/60
D. BP = 80/50
55. Refers to the pressure when the ventricles are at rest
A. Diastole
B. Systole
C. Preload
D. Pulse pressure
56. Which of the following is TRUE about the blood pressure determinants?
A. Hypervolemia lowers BP
B. Hypervolemia increases GFR
C. HCT of 70% might decrease or increase BP
D. Epinephrine decreases BP
57. Which of the following do not correctly correlates the increase BP of Ms. Aida, a 70 year old diabetic?
A. Females, after the age 65 tends to have lower BP than males
B. Disease process like Diabetes increase BP
C. BP is highest in the morning, and lowest during the night
D. Africans, have a greater risk of hypertension than Caucasian and Asians.
58. How many minutes are allowed to pass if the client had engaged in strenuous activities, smoked or ingested caffeine before taking his/her BP?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30
59. Too narrow cuff will cause what change in the Client’s BP?
A. True high reading
B. True low reading
C. False high reading
D. False low reading
60. Which is a preferable arm for BP taking?
A. An arm with the most contraptions
B. The left arm of the client with a CVA affecting the right brain
C. The right arm
D. The left arm
61. Which of the following is INCORRECT in assessing client’s BP?
A. Read the mercury at the upper meniscus, preferably at the eye level to prevent error of parallax
B. Inflate and deflate slowly, 2-3 mmHg at a time
C. The sound heard during taking BP is known as KOROTKOFF sound
D. If the BP is taken on the left leg using the popliteal artery pressure, a BP of 160/80 is normal.
62. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the ERROR OF PARALLAX
A. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false high reading
B. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low reading
C. If the eye level is lower than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low reading
D. If the eye level is equal to that of the level of the upper meniscus, the reading is accurate
63. How many minute/s is/are allowed to pass before making a re-reading after the first one?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 15
D. 30
64. Which of the following is TRUE about the auscultation of blood pressure?
A. Pulse + 4 is considered as FULL
B. The bell of the stethoscope is use in auscultating BP
C. Sound produced by BP is considered as HIGH frequency sound
D. Pulse +1 is considered as NORMAL
65. In assessing the abdomen, Which of the following is the correct sequence of the physical assessment?
A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
B. Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion, Inspection
C. Inspection, Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion
D. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion
66. The sequence in examining the quadrants of the abdomen is:
A. RUQ,RLQ,LUQ,LLQ
B. RLQ,RUQ,LLQ,LUQ
C. RUQ,RLQ,LLQ,LUQ
D. RLQ,RUQ,LUQ,LLQ
67. In inspecting the abdomen, which of the following is NOT DONE?
A. Ask the client to void first
B. Knees and legs are straighten to relax the abdomen
C. The best position in assessing the abdomen is Dorsal recumbent
D. The knees and legs are externally rotated
68. Dr. Fabian De Las Santas, is about to conduct an ophthalmoscope examination. Which of the following, if done by a nurse, is a Correct preparation before the procedure?
A. Provide the necessary draping to ensure privacy
B. Open the windows, curtains and light to allow better illumination
C. Pour warm water over the ophthalmoscope to ensure comfort
D. Darken the room to provide better illumination
69. If the client is female, and the doctor is a male and the patient is about to undergo a vaginal and cervical examination, why is it necessary to have a female nurse in attendance?
A. To ensure that the doctor performs the procedure safely
B. To assist the doctor
C. To assess the client’s response to examination
D. To ensure that the procedure is done in an ethical manner
70. In palpating the client’s breast, Which of the following position is necessary for the patient to assume before the start of the procedure?
A. Supine
B. Dorsal recumbent
C. Sitting
D. Lithotomy
71. When is the best time to collect urine specimen for routine urinalysis and C/S?
A. Early morning
B. Later afternoon
C. Midnight
D. Before breakfast
72. Which of the following is among an ideal way of collecting a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity?
A. Use a clean container
B. Discard the first flow of urine to ensure that the urine is not contaminated
C. Collect around 30-50 ml of urine
D. Add preservatives, refrigerate the specimen or add ice according to the agency’s protocol
73. In a 24 hour urine specimen started Friday, 9:00 A.M, which of the following if done by a Nurse indicate a NEED for further procedural debriefing?
A. The nurse ask the client to urinate at 9:00 A.M, Friday and she included the urine in the 24 hour urine specimen
B. The nurse discards the Friday 9:00 A M urine of the client
C. The nurse included the Saturday 9:00 A.M urine of the client to the specimen collection
D. The nurse added preservatives as per protocol and refrigerates the specimen
74. This specimen is required to assess glucose levels and for the presence of albumin the the urine
A. Midstream clean catch urine
B. 24 hours urine collection
C. Postprandial urine collection
D. Second voided urine
75. When should the client test his blood sugar levels for greater accuracy?
A. During meals
B. In between meals
C. Before meals
D. 2 Hours after meals
76. In collecting a urine from a catheterized patient, Which of the following statement indicates an accurate performance of the procedure?
A. Clamp above the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
B. Clamp below the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
C. Clamp above the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
D. Clamp below the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
77. A community health nurse should be resourceful and meet the needs of the client. A villager ask him, Can you test my urine for glucose? Which of the following technique allows the nurse to test a client’s urine for glucose without the need for intricate instruments.
A. Acetic Acid test
B. Nitrazine paper test
C. Benedict’s test
D. Litmus paper test
78. A community health nurse is assessing client’s urine using the Acetic Acid solution. Which of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates lack of correct knowledge with the procedure?
A. The nurse added the Urine as the 2/3 part of the solution
B. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 1/3 part acetic acid
C. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 2/3 part of Urine
D. The nurse determines abnormal result if she noticed that the test tube becomes cloudy
79. Which of the following is incorrect with regards to proper urine testing using Benedict’s Solution?
A. Heat around 5ml of Benedict’s solution together with the urine in a test tube
B. Add 8 to 10 drops of urine
C. Heat the Benedict’s solution without the urine to check if the solution is contaminated
D. If the color remains BLUE, the result is POSITIVE
80. +++ Positive result after Benedicts test is depicted by what color?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange
81. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, If committed by a nurse indicates error?
A. Specimen is collected after meals
B. The nurse puts 1 clinitest tablet into a test tube
C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
D. If the color becomes orange or red, It is considered postitive
82. Which of the following nursing intervention is important for a client scheduled to have a Guaiac Test?
A. Avoid turnips, radish and horseradish 3 days before procedure
B. Continue iron preparation to prevent further loss of Iron
C. Do not eat read meat 12 hours before procedure
D. Encourage caffeine and dark colored foods to produce accurate results
83. In collecting a routine specimen for fecalysis, Which of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates inadequate knowledge and skills about the procedure?
A. The nurse scoop the specimen specifically at the site with blood and mucus
B. She took around 1 inch of specimen or a teaspoonful
C. Ask the client to call her for the specimen after the client wiped off his anus with a tissue
D. Ask the client to defecate in a bedpan, Secure a sterile container
84. In a routine sputum analysis, Which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?
A. Secure a clean container
B. Discard the container if the outside becomes contaminated with the sputum
C. Rinse the client’s mouth with Listerine after collection
D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoon of sputum is needed for each specimen for a routine sputum analysis
85. Who collects Blood specimen?
A. The nurse
B. Medical technologist
C. Physician
D. Physical therapist
86. David, 68 year old male client is scheduled for Serum Lipid analysis. Which of the following health teaching is important to ensure accurate reading?
A. Tell the patient to eat fatty meals 3 days prior to the procedure
B. NPO for 12 hours pre procedure
C. Ask the client to drink 1 glass of water 1 hour prior to the procedure
D. Tell the client that the normal serum lipase level is 50 to 140 U/L
87. The primary factor responsible for body heat production is the
A. Metabolism
B. Release of thyroxin
C. Muscle activity
D. Stress
88. The heat regulating center is found in the
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Pons
89. A process of heat loss which involves the transfer of heat from one surface to another is
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Evaporation
90. Which of the following is a primary factor that affects the BP?
A. Obesity
B. Age
C. Stress
D. Gender
91. The following are social data about the client except
A. Patient’s lifestyle
B. Religious practices
C. Family home situation
D. Usual health status
92. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
93. Measure the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema is best done in what position?
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Sitting
C. Standing
D. Supine
94. In palpating the client’s abdomen, Which of the following is the best position for the client to assume?
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
95. Rectal examination is done with a client in what position?
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Sims position
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
96. Which of the following is a correct nursing action when collecting urine specimen from a client with an Indwelling catheter?
A. Collect urine specimen from the drainage bag
B. Detach catheter from the connecting tube and draw the specimen from the port
C. Use sterile syringe to aspirate urine specimen from the drainage port
D. Insert the syringe straight to the port to allow self sealing of the port
97. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting mid stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis?
A. Collect early in the morning, First voided specimen
B. Do perineal care before specimen collection
C. Collect 5 to 10 ml for urine
D. Discard the first flow of the urine
98. When palpating the client’s neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position himself?
A. At the client’s back
B. At the client’s right side
C. At the client’s left side
D. In front of a sitting client
99. Which of the following is the best position for the client to assume if the back is to be examined by the nurse?
A. Standing
B. Sitting
C. Side lying
D. Prone
100. In assessing the client’s chest, which position best show chest expansion as well as its movements?
A. Sitting
B. Prone
C. Sidelying
D. Supine
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST IV
Content Outline
1. The nursing process
2. Physical Assessment
3. Health Assessment
3.a Temperature
3.b Pulse
3.c Respiration
3.d Blood pressure
4. Routine Procedures
4.a Urinalysis specimen collection
4.b Sputum specimen collection
4.c Urine examination
4.d Positioning pre-procedure
4.e Stool specimen collection
1. She is the first one to coin the term “NURSING PROCESS” She introduced 3 steps of nursing process which are Observation, Ministration and Validation.
A. Nightingale
B. Johnson
C. Rogers
D. Hall
2. The American Nurses association formulated an innovation of the Nursing process. Today, how many distinct steps are there in the nursing process?
A. APIE – 4
B. ADPIE – 5
C. ADOPIE – 6
D. ADOPIER – 7
3. They are the first one to suggest a 4 step nursing process which are : APIE , or assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
1. Yura
2. Walsh
3. Roy
4. Knowles
A. 1,2
B. 1,3
C. 3,4
D. 2,3
4. Which characteristic of nursing process is responsible for proper utilization of human resources, time and cost resources?
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
5. Which characteristic of nursing process addresses the INDIVIDUALIZED care a client must receive?
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
6. A characteristic of the nursing process that is essential to promote client satisfaction and progress. The care should also be relevant with the client’s needs.
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
7. Rhina, who has Menieres disease, said that her environment is moving. Which of the following is a valid assessment?
1. Rhina is giving an objective data
2. Rhina is giving a subjective data
3. The source of the data is primary
4. The source of the data is secondary
A. 1,3
B. 2,3
C. 2.4
D. 1,4
8. Nurse Angela, observe Joel who is very apprehensive over the impending operation. The client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis and asks lots of questions. Angela made a diagnosis of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE PROCEDURE. This is what type of Nursing Diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
9. Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado, who have undergone a BKA. Her diagnosis is SELF ESTEEM DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN BODY IMAGE. Although the client has not yet seen her lost leg, Angela already anticipated the diagnosis. This is what type of Diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
10. Nurse Angela is about to make a diagnosis but very unsure because the S/S the client is experiencing is not specific with her diagnosis of POWERLESSNESS R/T DIFFICULTY ACCEPTING LOSS OF LOVED ONE. She then focus on gathering data to refute or prove her diagnosis but her plans and interventions are already ongoing for the diagnosis. Which type of Diagnosis is this?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
11. Nurse Angela knew that Stephen Lee Mu Chin, has just undergone an operation with an incision near the diaphragm. She knew that this will contribute to some complications later on. She then should develop what type of Nursing diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
12. Which of the following Nursing diagnosis is INCORRECT?
A. Fluid volume deficit R/T Diarrhea
B. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side rails
C. Possible ineffective coping R/T Loss of loved one
D. Self esteem disturbance R/T Effects of surgical removal of the leg
13. Among the following statements, which should be given the HIGHEST priority?
A. Client is in extreme pain
B. Client’s blood pressure is 60/40
C. Client’s temperature is 40 deg. Centigrade
D. Client is cyanotic
14. Which of the following need is given a higher priority among others?
A. The client has attempted suicide and safety precaution is needed
B. The client has disturbance in his body image because of the recent operation
C. The client is depressed because her boyfriend left her all alone
D. The client is thirsty and dehydrated
15. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Client Goals?
A. They are specific, measurable, attainable and time bounded
B. They are general and broadly stated
C. They should answer for WHO, WHAT ACTIONS, WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES, HOW WELL and WHEN.
D. Example is : After discharge planning, Client demonstrated the proper psychomotor skills for insulin injection.
16. Which of the following is a NOT a correct statement of an Outcome criteria?
A. Ambulates 30 feet with a cane before discharge
B. Discusses fears and concerns regarding the surgical procedure
C. Demonstrates proper coughing and breathing technique after a teaching session
D. Reestablishes a normal pattern of elimination
17. Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE data?
A. Dizziness
B. Chest pain
C. Anxiety
D. Blue nails
18. A patient’s chart is what type of data source?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Can be A and B
19. All of the following are characteristic of the Nursing process except
A. Dynamic
B. Cyclical
C. Universal
D. Intrapersonal
20. Which of the following is true about the NURSING CARE PLAN?
A. It is nursing centered
B. Rationales are supported by interventions
C. Verbal
D. Atleast 2 goals are needed for every nursing diagnosis
21. A framework for health assessment that evaluates the effects of stressors to the mind, body and environment in relation with the ability of the client to perform ADL.
A. Functional health framework
B. Head to toe framework
C. Body system framework
D. Cephalocaudal framework
22. Client has undergone Upper GI and Lower GI series. Which type of health assessment framework is used in this situation?
A. Functional health framework
B. Head to toe framework
C. Body system framework
D. Cephalocaudal framework
23. Which of the following statement is true regarding temperature?
A. Oral temperature is more accurate than rectal temperature
B. The bulb used in Rectal temperature reading is pear shaped or round
C. The older the person, the higher his BMR
D. When the client is swimming, BMR Decreases
24. A type of heat loss that occurs when the heat is dissipated by air current
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Evaporation
25. Which of the following is TRUE about temperature?
A. The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.N
B. The lowest temperature is usually in the Afternoon, Around 12 P.M
C. Thyroxin decreases body temperature
D. Elderly people are risk for hyperthermia due to the absence of fats, Decreased thermoregulatory control and sedentary lifestyle.
26. Hyperpyrexia is a condition in which the temperature is greater than
A. 40 degree Celsius
B. 39 degree Celsius
C. 100 degree Fahrenheit
D. 105.8 degree Fahrenheit
27. Tympanic temperature is taken from John, A client who was brought recently into the ER due to frequent barking cough. The temperature reads 37.9 Degrees Celsius. As a nurse, you conclude that this temperature is
A. High
B. Low
C. At the low end of the normal range
D. At the high end of the normal range
28. John has a fever of 38.5 Deg. Celsius. It surges at around 40 Degrees and go back to 38.5 degrees 6 times today in a typical pattern. What kind of fever is John having?
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant
29. John has a fever of 39.5 degrees 2 days ago, But yesterday, he has a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees. Today, his temperature surges to 40 degrees. What type of fever is John having?
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant
30. John’s temperature 10 hours ago is a normal 36.5 degrees. 4 hours ago, He has a fever with a temperature of 38.9 Degrees. Right now, his temperature is back to normal. Which of the following best describe the fever john is having?
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant
31. The characteristic fever in Dengue Virus is characterized as:
A. Tricyclic
B. Bicyclic
C. Biphasic
D. Triphasic
32. When John has been given paracetamol, his fever was brought down dramatically from 40 degrees Celsius to 36.7 degrees in a matter of 10 minutes. The nurse would assess this event as:
A. The goal of reducing john’s fever has been met with full satisfaction of the outcome criteria
B. The desired goal has been partially met
C. The goal is not completely met
D. The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome criteria
33. What can you expect from Marianne, who is currently at the ONSET stage of fever?
A. Hot, flushed skin
B. Increase thirst
C. Convulsion
D. Pale,cold skin
34. Marianne is now at the Defervescence stage of the fever, which of the following is expected?
A. Delirium
B. Goose flesh
C. Cyanotic nail beds
D. Sweating
35. Considered as the most accessible and convenient method for temperature taking
A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Tympanic
D. Axillary
36. Considered as Safest and most non invasive method of temperature taking
A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Tympanic
D. Axillary
37. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication in taking ORAL temperature?
A. Quadriplegic
B. Presence of NGT
C. Dyspnea
D. Nausea and Vomitting
38. Which of the following is a contraindication in taking RECTAL temperature?
A. Unconscious
B. Neutropenic
C. NPO
D. Very young children
39. How long should the Rectal Thermometer be inserted to the clients anus?
A. 1 to 2 inches
B. .5 to 1.5 inches
C. 3 to 5 inches
D. 2 to 3 inches
40. In cleaning the thermometer after use, The direction of the cleaning to follow Medical Asepsis is :
A. From bulb to stem
B. From stem to bulb
C. From stem to stem
D. From bulb to bulb
41. How long should the thermometer stay in the Client’s Axilla?
A. 3 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 7 minutes
D. 10 minutes
42. Which of the following statement is TRUE about pulse?
A. Young person have higher pulse than older persons
B. Males have higher pulse rate than females after puberty
C. Digitalis has a positive chronotropic effect
D. In lying position, Pulse rate is higher
43. The following are correct actions when taking radial pulse except:
A. Put the palms downward
B. Use the thumb to palpate the artery
C. Use two or three fingers to palpate the pulse at the inner wrist
D. Assess the pulse rate, rhythm, volume and bilateral quality
44. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is termed as
A. Apical rate
B. Cardiac rate
C. Pulse deficit
D. Pulse pressure
45. Which of the following completely describes PULSUS PARADOXICUS?
A. A greater-than-normal increase in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
B. A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
C. Pulse is paradoxically low when client is in standing position and high when supine.
D. Pulse is paradoxically high when client is in standing position and low when supine.
46. Which of the following is TRUE about respiration?
A. I:E 2:1
B. I:E : 4:3
C I:E 1:1
D. I:E 1:2
47. Contains the pneumotaxic and the apneutic centers
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
48. Which of the following is responsible for deep and prolonged inspiration
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
49. Which of the following is responsible for the rhythm and quality of breathing?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
50. The primary respiratory center
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
51. Which of the following is TRUE about the mechanism of action of the Aortic and Carotid bodies?
A. If the BP is elevated, the RR increases
B. If the BP is elevated, the RR decreases
C. Elevated BP leads to Metabolic alkalosis
D. Low BP leads to Metabolic acidosis
52. All of the following factors correctly influence respiration except one. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Hydrocodone decreases RR
B. Stress increases RR
C. Increase temperature of the environment, Increase RR
D. Increase altitude, Increase RR
53. When does the heart receives blood from the coronary artery?
A. Systole
B. Diastole
C. When the valves opens
D. When the valves closes
54. Which of the following is more life threatening?
A. BP = 180/100
B. BP = 160/120
C. BP = 90/60
D. BP = 80/50
55. Refers to the pressure when the ventricles are at rest
A. Diastole
B. Systole
C. Preload
D. Pulse pressure
56. Which of the following is TRUE about the blood pressure determinants?
A. Hypervolemia lowers BP
B. Hypervolemia increases GFR
C. HCT of 70% might decrease or increase BP
D. Epinephrine decreases BP
57. Which of the following do not correctly correlates the increase BP of Ms. Aida, a 70 year old diabetic?
A. Females, after the age 65 tends to have lower BP than males
B. Disease process like Diabetes increase BP
C. BP is highest in the morning, and lowest during the night
D. Africans, have a greater risk of hypertension than Caucasian and Asians.
58. How many minutes are allowed to pass if the client had engaged in strenuous activities, smoked or ingested caffeine before taking his/her BP?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30
59. Too narrow cuff will cause what change in the Client’s BP?
A. True high reading
B. True low reading
C. False high reading
D. False low reading
60. Which is a preferable arm for BP taking?
A. An arm with the most contraptions
B. The left arm of the client with a CVA affecting the right brain
C. The right arm
D. The left arm
61. Which of the following is INCORRECT in assessing client’s BP?
A. Read the mercury at the upper meniscus, preferably at the eye level to prevent error of parallax
B. Inflate and deflate slowly, 2-3 mmHg at a time
C. The sound heard during taking BP is known as KOROTKOFF sound
D. If the BP is taken on the left leg using the popliteal artery pressure, a BP of 160/80 is normal.
62. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the ERROR OF PARALLAX
A. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false high reading
B. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low reading
C. If the eye level is lower than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low reading
D. If the eye level is equal to that of the level of the upper meniscus, the reading is accurate
63. How many minute/s is/are allowed to pass before making a re-reading after the first one?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 15
D. 30
64. Which of the following is TRUE about the auscultation of blood pressure?
A. Pulse + 4 is considered as FULL
B. The bell of the stethoscope is use in auscultating BP
C. Sound produced by BP is considered as HIGH frequency sound
D. Pulse +1 is considered as NORMAL
65. In assessing the abdomen, Which of the following is the correct sequence of the physical assessment?
A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
B. Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion, Inspection
C. Inspection, Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion
D. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion
66. The sequence in examining the quadrants of the abdomen is:
A. RUQ,RLQ,LUQ,LLQ
B. RLQ,RUQ,LLQ,LUQ
C. RUQ,RLQ,LLQ,LUQ
D. RLQ,RUQ,LUQ,LLQ
67. In inspecting the abdomen, which of the following is NOT DONE?
A. Ask the client to void first
B. Knees and legs are straighten to relax the abdomen
C. The best position in assessing the abdomen is Dorsal recumbent
D. The knees and legs are externally rotated
68. Dr. Fabian De Las Santas, is about to conduct an ophthalmoscope examination. Which of the following, if done by a nurse, is a Correct preparation before the procedure?
A. Provide the necessary draping to ensure privacy
B. Open the windows, curtains and light to allow better illumination
C. Pour warm water over the ophthalmoscope to ensure comfort
D. Darken the room to provide better illumination
69. If the client is female, and the doctor is a male and the patient is about to undergo a vaginal and cervical examination, why is it necessary to have a female nurse in attendance?
A. To ensure that the doctor performs the procedure safely
B. To assist the doctor
C. To assess the client’s response to examination
D. To ensure that the procedure is done in an ethical manner
70. In palpating the client’s breast, Which of the following position is necessary for the patient to assume before the start of the procedure?
A. Supine
B. Dorsal recumbent
C. Sitting
D. Lithotomy
71. When is the best time to collect urine specimen for routine urinalysis and C/S?
A. Early morning
B. Later afternoon
C. Midnight
D. Before breakfast
72. Which of the following is among an ideal way of collecting a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity?
A. Use a clean container
B. Discard the first flow of urine to ensure that the urine is not contaminated
C. Collect around 30-50 ml of urine
D. Add preservatives, refrigerate the specimen or add ice according to the agency’s protocol
73. In a 24 hour urine specimen started Friday, 9:00 A.M, which of the following if done by a Nurse indicate a NEED for further procedural debriefing?
A. The nurse ask the client to urinate at 9:00 A.M, Friday and she included the urine in the 24 hour urine specimen
B. The nurse discards the Friday 9:00 A M urine of the client
C. The nurse included the Saturday 9:00 A.M urine of the client to the specimen collection
D. The nurse added preservatives as per protocol and refrigerates the specimen
74. This specimen is required to assess glucose levels and for the presence of albumin the the urine
A. Midstream clean catch urine
B. 24 hours urine collection
C. Postprandial urine collection
D. Second voided urine
75. When should the client test his blood sugar levels for greater accuracy?
A. During meals
B. In between meals
C. Before meals
D. 2 Hours after meals
76. In collecting a urine from a catheterized patient, Which of the following statement indicates an accurate performance of the procedure?
A. Clamp above the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
B. Clamp below the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
C. Clamp above the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
D. Clamp below the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
77. A community health nurse should be resourceful and meet the needs of the client. A villager ask him, Can you test my urine for glucose? Which of the following technique allows the nurse to test a client’s urine for glucose without the need for intricate instruments.
A. Acetic Acid test
B. Nitrazine paper test
C. Benedict’s test
D. Litmus paper test
78. A community health nurse is assessing client’s urine using the Acetic Acid solution. Which of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates lack of correct knowledge with the procedure?
A. The nurse added the Urine as the 2/3 part of the solution
B. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 1/3 part acetic acid
C. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 2/3 part of Urine
D. The nurse determines abnormal result if she noticed that the test tube becomes cloudy
79. Which of the following is incorrect with regards to proper urine testing using Benedict’s Solution?
A. Heat around 5ml of Benedict’s solution together with the urine in a test tube
B. Add 8 to 10 drops of urine
C. Heat the Benedict’s solution without the urine to check if the solution is contaminated
D. If the color remains BLUE, the result is POSITIVE
80. +++ Positive result after Benedicts test is depicted by what color?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange
81. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, If committed by a nurse indicates error?
A. Specimen is collected after meals
B. The nurse puts 1 clinitest tablet into a test tube
C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
D. If the color becomes orange or red, It is considered postitive
82. Which of the following nursing intervention is important for a client scheduled to have a Guaiac Test?
A. Avoid turnips, radish and horseradish 3 days before procedure
B. Continue iron preparation to prevent further loss of Iron
C. Do not eat read meat 12 hours before procedure
D. Encourage caffeine and dark colored foods to produce accurate results
83. In collecting a routine specimen for fecalysis, Which of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates inadequate knowledge and skills about the procedure?
A. The nurse scoop the specimen specifically at the site with blood and mucus
B. She took around 1 inch of specimen or a teaspoonful
C. Ask the client to call her for the specimen after the client wiped off his anus with a tissue
D. Ask the client to defecate in a bedpan, Secure a sterile container
84. In a routine sputum analysis, Which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?
A. Secure a clean container
B. Discard the container if the outside becomes contaminated with the sputum
C. Rinse the client’s mouth with Listerine after collection
D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoon of sputum is needed for each specimen for a routine sputum analysis
85. Who collects Blood specimen?
A. The nurse
B. Medical technologist
C. Physician
D. Physical therapist
86. David, 68 year old male client is scheduled for Serum Lipid analysis. Which of the following health teaching is important to ensure accurate reading?
A. Tell the patient to eat fatty meals 3 days prior to the procedure
B. NPO for 12 hours pre procedure
C. Ask the client to drink 1 glass of water 1 hour prior to the procedure
D. Tell the client that the normal serum lipase level is 50 to 140 U/L
87. The primary factor responsible for body heat production is the
A. Metabolism
B. Release of thyroxin
C. Muscle activity
D. Stress
88. The heat regulating center is found in the
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Pons
89. A process of heat loss which involves the transfer of heat from one surface to another is
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Evaporation
90. Which of the following is a primary factor that affects the BP?
A. Obesity
B. Age
C. Stress
D. Gender
91. The following are social data about the client except
A. Patient’s lifestyle
B. Religious practices
C. Family home situation
D. Usual health status
92. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
93. Measure the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema is best done in what position?
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Sitting
C. Standing
D. Supine
94. In palpating the client’s abdomen, Which of the following is the best position for the client to assume?
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
95. Rectal examination is done with a client in what position?
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Sims position
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
96. Which of the following is a correct nursing action when collecting urine specimen from a client with an Indwelling catheter?
A. Collect urine specimen from the drainage bag
B. Detach catheter from the connecting tube and draw the specimen from the port
C. Use sterile syringe to aspirate urine specimen from the drainage port
D. Insert the syringe straight to the port to allow self sealing of the port
97. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting mid stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis?
A. Collect early in the morning, First voided specimen
B. Do perineal care before specimen collection
C. Collect 5 to 10 ml for urine
D. Discard the first flow of the urine
98. When palpating the client’s neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position himself?
A. At the client’s back
B. At the client’s right side
C. At the client’s left side
D. In front of a sitting client
99. Which of the following is the best position for the client to assume if the back is to be examined by the nurse?
A. Standing
B. Sitting
C. Side lying
D. Prone
100. In assessing the client’s chest, which position best show chest expansion as well as its movements?
A. Sitting
B. Prone
C. Sidelying
D. Supine
Subscribe to:
Posts (Atom)