Nov 15, 2008

LEADERSHIP, MANAGEMENT, BIOETHICS AND RESEARCH

1. Ms. Castro is newly-promoted to a patient care manager position. She updates her knowledge on the theories in management and leadership in order to become effective in her new role. She learns that some managers have low concern for services and high concern for staff. Which style of management refers to this?
A. Organization Man
B. Impoverished Management
C. Country Club Management
D. Team Management

Answer: (C) Country Club Management
Country club management style puts concern for the staff as number one priority at the expense of the delivery of services. He/she runs the department just like a country club where every one is happy including the manager.
2. Her former manager demonstrated passion for serving her staff rather than being served. She takes time to listen, prefers to be a teacher first before being a leader, which is characteristic of
A. Transformational leader
B. Transactional leader
C. Servant leader
D. Charismatic leader

Answer: (C) Servant leader
Servant leaders are open-minded, listen deeply, try to fully understand others and not being judgmental
3. On the other hand, Ms. Castro notices that the Chief Nurse Executive has charismatic leadership style. Which of the following behaviors best describes this style?
A. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers gets attracted of him and regards him with reverence
B. Acts as he does because he expects that his behavior will yield positive results
C. Uses visioning as the core of his leadership
D. Matches his leadership style to the situation at hand.

Answer: (A) Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers gets attracted of him and regards him with reverence
Charismatic leaders make the followers feel at ease in their presence. They feel that they are in good hands whenever the leader is around.
4. Which of the following conclusions of Ms. Castro about leadership characteristics is TRUE?
A. There is a high correlation between the communication skills of a leader and the ability to get the job done.
B. A manager is effective when he has the ability to plan well.
C. Assessment of personal traits is a reliable tool for predicting a manager’s potential.
D. There is good evidence that certain personal qualities favor success in managerial role.

Answer: (C) Assessment of personal traits is a reliable tool for predicting a manager’s potential.
It is not conclusive that certain qualities of a person would make him become a good manager. It can only predict a manager’s potential of becoming a good one.
5. She reads about Path Goal theory. Which of the following behaviors is manifested by the leader who uses this theory?
A. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations
B. Challenges the staff to take individual accountability for their own practice
C. Admonishes staff for being laggards.
D. Reminds staff about the sanctions for non performance.

Answer: (A) Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations
Path Goal theory according to House and associates rewards good performance so that others would do the same
6. One leadership theory states that “leaders are born and not made,” which refers to which of the following theories?
A. Trait
B. Charismatic
C. Great Man
D. Situational

Answer: (C) Great Man
Leaders become leaders because of their birth right. This is also called Genetic theory or the Aristotelian theory

7. She came across a theory which states that the leadership style is effective dependent on the situation. Which of the following styles best fits a situation when the followers are self-directed, experts and arematured individuals?
A. Democratic
B. Authoritarian
C. Laissez faire
D. Bureaucratic

Answer: (C) Laissez faire
Laissez faire leadership is preferred when the followers know what to do and are experts in the field. This leadership style is relationship-oriented rather than task-centered.
8. She surfs the internet for more information about leadership styles. She reads about shared leadership as a practice in some magnet hospitals. Which of the following describes this style of leadership?
A. Leadership behavior is generally determined by the relationship between the leader’s personality and the specific situation
B. Leaders believe that people are basically good and need not be closely controlled
C. Leaders rely heavily on visioning and inspire members to achieve results
D. Leadership is shared at the point of care.

Answer: (D) Leadership is shared at the point of care.
Shared governance allows the staff nurses to have the authority, responsibility and accountability for their own practice.
9. Ms. Castro learns that some leaders are transactional leaders. Which of the following does NOT characterize a transactional leader?
A. Focuses on management tasks
B. Is a caretaker
C. Uses trade-offs to meet goals
D. Inspires others with vision

Answer: (D) Inspires others with vision
Inspires others with a vision is characteristic of a transformational leader. He is focused more on the day-to-day operations of the department/unit.
10. She finds out that some managers have benevolent-authoritative style of management. Which of the following behaviors will she exhibit most likely?
A. Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates
B. Gives economic or ego awards
C. Communicates downward to the staff
D. Allows decision making among subordinates

Answer: (A) Have condescending trust and confidence in their subordinates
Benevolent-authoritative managers pretentiously show their trust and confidence to their followers
11. Harry is a Unit Manager I the Medical Unit. He is not satisfied with the way things are going in his unit. Patient satisfaction rate is 60% for two consecutive months and staff morale is at its lowest. He decides to plan and initiate changes that will push for a turnaround in the condition of the unit. Which of the following actions is a priority for Harry?
A. Call for a staff meeting and take this up in the agenda.
B. Seek help from her manager.
C. Develop a strategic action on how to deal with these concerns.
D. Ignore the issues since these will be resolved naturally.

Answer: (A) Call for a staff meeting and take this up in the agenda.
This will allow for the participation of every staff in the unit. If they contribute to the solutions of the problem, they will own the solutions; hence the chance for compliance would be greater.
12. She knows that there are external forces that influence changes in his unit. Which of the following is NOT an external force?
A. Memo from the CEO to cut down on electrical consumption
B. Demands of the labor sector to increase wages
C. Low morale of staff in her unit
D. Exacting regulatory and accreditation standards

Answer: (C) Low morale of staff in her unit
Low morale of staff is an internal factor that affects only the unit. All the rest of the options emanate from the top executive or from outside the institution.
13. After discussing the possible effects of the low patient satisfaction rate, the staff started to list down possible strategies to solve the problems head-on. Should they decide to vote on the best change strategy, which of the following strategies is referred to this?
A. Collaboration
B. Majority rule
C. Dominance
D. Compromise

Answer: (B) Majority rule
Majority rule involves dividing the house and the highest vote wins.1/2 + 1 is a majority.
14. One staff suggests that they review the pattern of nursing care that they are using, which is described as a
A. job description
B. system used to deliver care
C. manual of procedure
D. rules to be followed

Answer: (B) system used to deliver care
A system used to deliver care. In the 70’s it was termed as methods of patient assignment; in the early 80’s it was called modalities of patient care then patterns of nursing care in the 90’s until recently authors called it nursing care systems.
15. Which of the following is TRUE about functional nursing?
A. Concentrates on tasks and activities
B. Emphasizes use of group collaboration
C. One-to-one nurse-patient ratio
D. Provides continuous, coordinated and comprehensive nursing services

Answer: (A) Concentrates on tasks and activities
Functional nursing is focused on tasks and activities and not on the holistic care of the patients

16. Functional nursing has some advantages, which one is an EXCEPTION?
A. Psychological and sociological needs are emphasized.
B. Great control of work activities.
C. Most economical way of delivering nursing services.
D. Workers feel secure in dependent role

Answer: (A) Psychological and sociological needs are emphasized.
When the functional method is used, the psychological and sociological needs of the patients are neglected; the patients are regarded as ‘tasks to be done ‘
17. He raised the issue on giving priority to patient needs. Which of the following offers the best way for setting priority?
A. Assessing nursing needs and problems
B. Giving instructions on how nursing care needs are to be met
C. Controlling and evaluating the delivery of nursing care
D. Assigning safe nurse: patient ratio

Answer: (A) Assessing nursing needs and problems
This option follows the framework of the nursing process at the same time applies the management process of planning, organizing, directing and controlling
18. Which of the following is the best guarantee that the patient’s priority needs are met?
A. Checking with the relative of the patient
B. Preparing a nursing care plan in collaboration with the patient
C. Consulting with the physician
D. Coordinating with other members of the team

Answer: (B) Preparing a nursing care plan in collaboration with the patient
The best source of information about the priority needs of the patient is the patient himself. Hence using a nursing care plan based on his expressed priority needs would ensure meeting his needs effectively.
19. When Harry uses team nursing as a care delivery system, he and his team need to assess the priority of care for a group of patients, which of the following should be a priority?
A. Each patient as listed on the worksheet
B. Patients who needs least care
C. Medications and treatments required for all patients
D. Patients who need the most care

Answer: (D) Patients who need the most care
In setting priorities for a group of patients, those who need the most care should be number-one priority to ensure that their critical needs are met adequately. The needs of other patients who need less care ca be attended to later or even delegated to assistive personnel according to rules on delegation.
20. She is hopeful that her unit will make a big turnaround in the succeeding months. Which of the following actions of Harry demonstrates that he has reached the third stage of change?
A. Wonders why things are not what it used to be
B. Finds solutions to the problems
C. Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities
D. Selects the best change strategy

Answer: (C) Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities
Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities is a expected to happen during the third stage of change when the change agent incorporate the selected solutions to his system and begins to create a change.
21. Julius is a newly-appointed nurse manager of The Good Shepherd Medical Center, a tertiary hospital located within the heart of the metropolis. He thinks of scheduling planning workshop with his staff in order to ensure an effective and efficient management of the department. Should he decide to conduct a strategic planning workshop, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of this activity?
A. Long-term goal-setting
B. Extends to 3-5 years in the future
C. Focuses on routine tasks
D. Determines directions of the organization

Answer: (C) Focuses on routine tasks
Strategic planning involves options A, B and D except C which is attributed to operational planning
22. Which of the following statements refer to the vision of the hospital?
A. The Good Shepherd Medical Center is a trendsetter in tertiary health care in the Philippines in the next five years
B. The officers and staff of The Good Shepherd Medical Center believe in the unique nature of the human person
C. All the nurses shall undergo continuing competency training program.
D. The Good Shepherd Medical Center aims to provide a patient-centered care in a total healing environment.

Answer: (A) The Good Shepherd Medical Center is a trendsetter in tertiary health care in the Philippines in the next five years
A vision refers to what the institution wants to become within a particular period of time.

23. The statement, “The Good Shepherd Medical Center aims to provide patient-centered care in a total healing environment” refers to which of the following?
A. Vision
B. Goal
C. Philosophy
D. Mission

Answer: (B) Goal
B
24. Julius plans to revisit the organizational chart of the department. He plans to create a new position of a Patient Educator who has a coordinating relationship with the head nurse in the unit. Which of the following will likely depict this organizational relationship?
A. Box
B. Solid line
C. Broken line
D. Dotted line

Answer: (C) Broken line
This is a staff relationship hence it is depicted by a broken line in the organizational structure
25. He likewise stresses the need for all the employees to follow orders and instructions from him and not from anyone else. Which of the following principles does he refer to?
A. Scalar chain
B. Discipline
C. Unity of command
D. Order

Answer: (C) Unity of command
The principle of unity of command means that employees should receive orders coming from only one manager and not from two managers. This averts the possibility of sowing confusion among the members of the organization
26. Julius orients his staff on the patterns of reporting relationship throughout the organization. Which of the following principles refer to this?
A. Span of control
B. Hierarchy
C. Esprit d’ corps
D. Unity of direction

Answer: (B) Hierarchy
Hierarchy refers to the pattern of reporting or the formal line of authority in an organizational structure.
27. He emphasizes to the team that they need to put their efforts together towards the attainment of the goals of the program. Which of the following principles refers to this?
A. Span of control
B. Unity of direction
C. Unity of command
D. Command responsibility

Answer: (B) Unity of direction
Unity of direction means having one goal or one objective for the team to pursue; hence all members of the organization should put their efforts together towards the attainment of their common goal or objective.

28. Julius stresses the importance of promoting ‘esprit d corps’ among the members of the unit. Which of the following remarks of the staff indicates that they understand what he pointed out?
A. “Let’s work together in harmony; we need to be supportive of one another”
B. “In order that we achieve the same results; we must all follow the directives of Julius and not from other managers.”
C. “We will ensure that all the resources we need are available when needed.”
D. “We need to put our efforts together in order to raise the bar of excellence in the care we provide to all our patients.”

Answer: (A) “Let’s work together in harmony; we need to be supportive of one another”
The principle of ‘esprit d’ corps’ refers to promoting harmony in the workplace, which is essential in maintaining a climate conducive to work.
29. He discusses the goal of the department. Which of the following statements is a goal?
A. Increase the patient satisfaction rate
B. Eliminate the incidence of delayed administration of medications
C. Establish rapport with patients.
D. Reduce response time to two minutes.

Answer: (A) Increase the patient satisfaction rate
Goal is a desired result towards which efforts are directed. Options AB, C and D are all objectives which are aimed at specific end.
30. He wants to influence the customary way of thinking and behaving that is shared by the members of the department. Which of the following terms refer to this?
A. Organizational chart
B. Cultural network
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational culture

Answer: (D) Organizational culture
An organizational culture refers to the way the members of the organization think together and do things around them together. It’s their way of life in that organization
31. He asserts the importance of promoting a positive organizational culture in their unit. Which of the following behaviors indicate that this is attained by the group?
A. Proactive and caring with one another
B. Competitive and perfectionist
C. Powerful and oppositional
D. Obedient and uncomplaining

Answer: (A) Proactive and caring with one another
Positive culture is based on humanism and affiliative norms
32. Stephanie is a new Staff Educator of a private tertiary hospital. She conducts orientation among new staff nurses in her department. Joseph, one of the new staff nurses, wants to understand the channel of communication, span of control and lines of communication. Which of the following will provide this information?
A. Organizational structure
B. Policy
C. Job description
D. Manual of procedures

Answer: (A) Organizational structure
Organizational structure provides information on the channel of authority, i.e., who reports to whom and with what authority; the number of people who directly reports to the various levels of hierarchy and the lines of communication whether line or staff.
33. Stephanie is often seen interacting with the medical intern during coffee breaks and after duty hours. What type of organizational structure is this?
A. Formal
B. Informal
C. Staff
D. Line

Answer: (B) Informal
This is usually not published and oftentimes concealed.
34. She takes pride in saying that the hospital has a decentralized structure. Which of the following is NOT compatible with this type of model?
A. Flat organization
B. Participatory approach
C. Shared governance
D. Tall organization

Answer: (D) Tall organization
Tall organizations are highly centralized organizations where decision making is centered on one authority level.
35. Centralized organizations have some advantages. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
1. Highly cost-effective
2. Makes management easier
3. Reflects the interest of the worker
4. Allows quick decisions or actions.

A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 4
C. 2, 3& 4
D. 1, 2, & 4

Answer: (A) 1 & 2
Centralized organizations are needs only a few managers hence they are less expensive and easier to manage
36. Stephanie delegates effectively if she has authority to act, which is BEST defined as:
A. having responsibility to direct others
B. being accountable to the organization
C. having legitimate right to act
D. telling others what to do

Answer: (C) having legitimate right to act
Authority is a legitimate or official right to give command. This is an officially sanctioned responsibility

37. Regardless of the size of a work group, enough staff must be available at all times to accomplish certain purposes. Which of these purposes in NOT included?
A. Meet the needs of patients
B. Provide a pair of hands to other units as needed
C. Cover all time periods adequately.
D. Allow for growth and development of nursing staff.

Answer: (B) Provide a pair of hands to other units as needed
Providing a pair of hands for other units is not a purpose in doing an effective staffing process. This is a function of a staffing coordinator at a centralized model.

38. Which of the following guidelines should be least considered in formulating objectives for nursing care?
A. Written nursing care plan
B. Holistic approach
C. Prescribed standards
D. Staff preferences

Answer: (D) Staff preferences
Staff preferences should be the least priority in formulating objectives of nursing care. Individual preferences should be subordinate to the interest of the patients.
41. Stephanie considers shifting to transformational leadership. Which of the following statements best describes this type of leadership?
A. Uses visioning as the essence of leadership.
B. Serves the followers rather than being served.
C. Maintains full trust and confidence in the subordinates
D. Possesses innate charisma that makes others feel good in his presence.

Answer: (A) Uses visioning as the essence of leadership.
Transformational leadership relies heavily on visioning as the core of leadership.
42. As a manager, she focuses her energy on both the quality of services rendered to the patients as well as the welfare of the staff of her unit. Which of the following management styles does she adopt?
A. Country club management
B. Organization man management
C. Team management
D. Authority-obedience management

Answer: (C) Team management
Team management has a high concern for services and high concern for staff.
43. Katherine is a young Unit Manager of the Pediatric Ward. Most of her staff nurses are senior to her, very articulate, confident and sometimes aggressive. Katherine feels uncomfortable believing that she is the scapegoat of everything that goes wrong in her department. Which of the following is the best action that she must take?
A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction
B. Disregard what she feels and continue to work independently
C. Seek help from the Director of Nursing
D. Quit her job and look for another employment.

Answer: (A) Identify the source of the conflict and understand the points of friction
This involves a problem solving approach, which addresses the root cause of the problem.
44. As a young manager, she knows that conflict occurs in any organization. Which of the following statements regarding conflict is NOT true?
A. Can be destructive if the level is too high
B. Is not beneficial; hence it should be prevented at all times
C. May result in poor performance
D. May create leaders

Answer: (B) Is not beneficial; hence it should be prevented at all times
Conflicts are beneficial because it surfaces out issues in the open and can be solved right away. Likewise, members of the team become more conscientious with their work when they are aware that other members of the team are watching them.
45. Katherine tells one of the staff, “I don’t have time to discuss the matter with you now. See me in my office later” when the latter asks if they can talk about an issue. Which of the following conflict resolution strategies did she use?
A. Smoothing
B. Compromise
C. Avoidance
D. Restriction

Answer: (C) Avoidance
This strategy shuns discussing the issue head-on and prefers to postpone it to a later time. In effect the problem remains unsolved and both parties are in a lose-lose situation.
46. Kathleen knows that one of her staff is experiencing burnout. Which of the following is the best thing for her to do?
A. Advise her staff to go on vacation.
B. Ignore her observations; it will be resolved even without intervention
C. Remind her to show loyalty to the institution.
D. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be of help.

Answer: (D) Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she can be of help.
Reaching out and helping the staff is the most effective strategy in dealing with burn out. Knowing that someone is ready to help makes the staff feel important; hence her self-worth is enhanced.
47. She knows that performance appraisal consists of all the following activities EXCEPT:
A. Setting specific standards and activities for individual performance.
B. Using agency standards as a guide.
C. Determine areas of strength and weaknesses
D. Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior.

Answer: (D) Focusing activity on the correction of identified behavior.
Performance appraisal deal with both positive and negative performance; is not meant to be a fault-finding activity
48. Which of the following statements is NOT true about performance appraisal?
A. Informing the staff about the specific impressions of their work help improve their performance.
B. A verbal appraisal is an acceptable substitute for a written report
C. Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal.
D. The outcome of performance appraisal rests primarily with the staff.

Answer: (C) Patients are the best source of information regarding personnel appraisal.
The patient can be a source of information about the performance of the staff but it is never the best source. Directly observing the staff is the best source of information for personnel appraisal.
49. There are times when Katherine evaluates her staff as she makes her daily rounds. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of conducting an informal appraisal?
A. The staff member is observed in natural setting.
B. Incidental confrontation and collaboration is allowed.
C. The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically.
D. The evaluation may provide valid information for compilation of a formal report.

Answer: (C) The evaluation is focused on objective data systematically.
Collecting objective data systematically can not be achieved in an informal appraisal. It is focused on what actually happens in the natural work setting.
50. She conducts a 6-month performance review session with a staff member. Which of the following actions is appropriate?
A. She asks another nurse to attest the session as a witness.
B. She informs the staff that she may ask another nurse to read the appraisal before the session is over.
C. She tells the staff that the session is manager-centered.
D. The session is private between the two members.

Answer: (D) The session is private between the two members.
The session is private between the manager and the staff and remains to be so when the two parties do not divulge the information to others.

51. Alexandra is tasked to organize the new wing of the hospital. She was given the authority to do as she deems fit. 51. She is aware that the director of nursing has substantial trust and confidence in her capabilities, communicates through downward and upward channels and usually uses the ideas and opinions of her staff. Which of the following is her style of management?
A. Benevolent –authoritative
B. Consultative
C. Exploitive-authoritative
D. Participative

Answer: (B) Consultative
A consultative manager is almost like a participative manager. The participative manager has complete trust and confidence in the subordinate, always uses the opinions and ideas of subordinates and communicates in all directions.
52. She decides to illustrate the organizational structure. Which of the following elements is NOT included?
A. Level of authority
B. Lines of communication
C. Span of control
D. Unity of direction

Answer: (D) Unity of direction
Unity of direction is a management principle, not an element of an organizational structure.
53. She plans of assigning competent people to fill the roles designed in the hierarchy. Which process refers to this?
A. Staffing
B. Scheduling
C. Recruitment
D. Induction

Answer: (A) Staffing
Staffing is a management function involving putting the best people to accomplish tasks and activities to attain the goals of the organization.

54. She checks the documentary requirements for the applicants for staff nurse position. Which one is NOT necessary?
A. Certificate of previous employment
B. Record of related learning experience (RLE)
C. Membership to accredited professional organization
D. Professional identification card

Answer: (B) Record of related learning experience (RLE)
Record of RLE is not required for employment purposes but it is required for the nurse’s licensure examination.
55. Which phase of the employment process includes getting on the payroll and completing documentary requirements?
A. Orientation
B. Induction
C. Selection
D. Recruitment

Answer: (B) Induction
This step in the recruitment process gives time for the staff to submit all the documentary requirements for employment.

56. She tries to design an organizational structure that allows communication to flow in all directions and involve workers in decision making. Which form of organizational structure is this?
A. Centralized
B. Decentralized
C. Matrix
D. Informal

Answer: (B) Decentralized
Decentralized structures allow the staff to make decisions on matters pertaining to their practice and communicate in downward, upward, lateral and diagonal flow.
57. In a horizontal chart, the lowest level worker is located at the
A. Leftmost box
B. Middle
C. Rightmost box
D. Bottom

Answer: (C) Rightmost box
The leftmost box is occupied by the highest authority while the lowest level worker occupies the rightmost box.
58. She decides to have a decentralized staffing system. Which of the following is an advantage of this system of staffing?
A. greater control of activities
B. Conserves time
C. Compatible with computerization
D. Promotes better interpersonal relationship

Answer: (D) Promotes better interpersonal relationship
Decentralized structures allow the staff to solve decisions by themselves, involve them in decision making; hence they are always given opportunities to interact with one another.
59. Aubrey thinks about primary nursing as a system to deliver care. Which of the following activities is NOT done by a primary nurse?
A. Collaborates with the physician
B. Provides care to a group of patients together with a group of nurses
C. Provides care for 5-6 patients during their hospital stay.
D. Performs comprehensive initial assessment

Answer: (B) Provides care to a group of patients together with a group of nurses
This function is done in team nursing where the nurse is a member of a team that provides care for a group of patients.
60. Which pattern of nursing care involves the care given by a group of paraprofessional workers led by a professional nurse who take care of patients with the same disease conditions and are located geographically near each other?
A. Case method
B. Modular nursing
C. Nursing case management
D. Team nursing

Answer: (B) Modular nursing
Modular nursing is a variant of team nursing. The difference lies in the fact that the members in modular nursing are paraprofessional workers.
61. St. Raphael Medical Center just opened its new Performance Improvement Department. Ms. Valencia is appointed as the Quality Control Officer. She commits herself to her new role and plans her strategies to realize the goals and objectives of the department. Which of the following is a primary task that they should perform to have an effective control system?
A. Make an interpretation about strengths and weaknesses
B. Identify the values of the department
C. Identify structure, process, outcome standards & criteria
D. Measure actual performances

Answer: (B) Identify the values of the department
Identify the values of the department will set the guiding principles within which the department will operate its activities
62. Ms. Valencia develops the standards to be followed. Among the following standards, which is considered as a structure standard?
A. The patients verbalized satisfaction of the nursing care received
B. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all patient care personnel.
C. All patients shall have their weights taken recorded
D. Patients shall answer the evaluation form before discharge

Answer: (B) Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for all patient care personnel.
Structure standards include management system, facilities, equipment, materials needed to deliver care to patients. Rotation of duty is a management system.
63. When she presents the nursing procedures to be followed, she refers to what type of standards?
A. Process
B. Outcome
C. Structure
D. Criteria

Answer: (A) Process
Process standards include care plans, nursing procedure to be done to address the needs of the patients.

64. The following are basic steps in the controlling process of the department. Which of the following is NOT included?
A. Measure actual performance
B. Set nursing standards and criteria
C. Compare results of performance to standards and objectives
D. Identify possible courses of action

Answer: (D) Identify possible courses of action
This is a step in a quality control process and not a basic step in the control process.

65. Which of the following statements refers to criteria?
A. Agreed on level of nursing care
B. Characteristics used to measure the level of nursing care
C. Step-by-step guidelines
D. Statement which guide the group in decision making and problem solving

Answer: (B) Characteristics used to measure the level of nursing care
Criteria are specific characteristics used to measure the standard of care.
66. She wants to ensure that every task is carried out as planned. Which of the following tasks is NOT included in the controlling process?
A. Instructing the members of the standards committee to prepare policies
B. Reviewing the existing policies of the hospital
C. Evaluating the credentials of all nursing staff
D. Checking if activities conform to schedule

Answer: (A) Instructing the members of the standards committee to prepare policies
Instructing the members involves a directing function.
67. Ms. Valencia prepares the process standards. Which of the following is NOT a process standard?
A. Initial assessment shall be done to all patients within twenty four hours upon admission.
B. Informed consent shall be secured prior to any invasive procedure
C. Patients’ reports 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital.
D. Patient education about their illness and treatment shall be provided for all patients and their families.

Answer: (C) Patients’ reports 95% satisfaction rate prior to discharge from the hospital.
This refers to an outcome standard, which is a result of the care that is rendered to the patient.
68. Which of the following is evidence that the controlling process is effective?
A. The things that were planned are done
B. Physicians do not complain.
C. Employees are contended
D. There is an increase in customer satisfaction rate.

Answer: (A) The things that were planned are done
Controlling is defined as seeing to it that what is planned is done.

69. Ms. Valencia is responsible to the number of personnel reporting to her. This principle refers to:
A. Span of control
B. Unity of command
C. Carrot and stick principle
D. Esprit d’ corps

Answer: (A) Span of control
Span of control refers to the number of workers who report directly to a manager.
70. She notes that there is an increasing unrest of the staff due to fatigue brought about by shortage of staff. Which action is a priority?
A. Evaluate the overall result of the unrest
B. Initiate a group interaction
C. Develop a plan and implement it
D. Identify external and internal forces.

Answer: (B) Initiate a group interaction
Initiate a group interaction will be an opportunity to discuss the problem in the open.
71. Kevin is a member of the Nursing Research Council of the hospital. His first assignment is to determine the level of patient satisfaction on the care they received from the hospital. He plans to include all adult patients admitted from April to May, with average length of stay of 3-4 days, first admission, and with no complications. Which of the following is an extraneous variable of the study?
A. Date of admission
B. Length of stay
C. Age of patients
D. Absence of complications

Answer: (C) Age of patients
An extraneous variable is not the primary concern of the researcher but has an effect on the results of the study. Adult patients may be young, middle or late adult.
72. He thinks of an appropriate theoretical framework. Whose theory addresses the four modes of adaptation?
A. Martha Rogers
B. Sr. Callista Roy
C. Florence Nightingale
D. Jean Watson

Answer: (B) Sr. Callista Roy
Sr. Callista Roy developed the Adaptation Model which involves the physiologic mode, self-concept mode, role function mode and dependence mode

73. He opts to use a self-report method. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about this method?
A. Most direct means of gathering information
B. Versatile in terms of content coverage
C. Most accurate and valid method of data gathering
D. Yields information that would be difficult to gather by another method

Answer: (C) Most accurate and valid method of data gathering
The most serious disadvantage of this method is accuracy and validity of information gathered
74. Which of the following articles would Kevin least consider for his review of literature?
A. “Story-Telling and Anxiety Reduction Among Pediatric Patients”
B. “Turnaround Time in Emergency Rooms”
C. “Outcome Standards in Tertiary Health Care Institutions”
D. “Environmental Manipulation and Client Outcomes”

Answer: (B) “Turnaround Time in Emergency Rooms”
The article is for pediatric patients and may not be relevant for adult patients.

75. Which of the following variables will he likely EXCLUDE in his study?
A. Competence of nurses
B. Caring attitude of nurses
C. Salary of nurses
D. Responsiveness of staff

Answer: (C) Salary of nurses
Salary of staff nurses is not an indicator of patient satisfaction, hence need not be included as a variable in the study.
76. He plans to use a Likert Scale to determine
A. degree of agreement and disagreement
B. compliance to expected standards
C. level of satisfaction
D. degree of acceptance

Answer: (A) degree of agreement and disagreement
Likert scale is a 5-point summated scale used to determine the degree of agreement or disagreement of the respondents to a statement in a study.

77. He checks if his instruments meet the criteria for evaluation. Which of the following criteria refers to the consistency or the ability to yield the same response upon its repeated administration?
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Sensitivity
D. Objectivity

Answer: (B) Reliability
Reliability is repeatability of the instrument; it can elicit the same responses even with varied administration of the instrument
78. Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument to detect fine differences among the subjects being studied?
A. Sensitivity
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. Objectivity

Answer: (A) Sensitivity
Sensitivity is an attribute of the instrument that allow the respondents to distinguish differences of the options where to choose from

79. Which of the following terms refer to the degree to which an instrument measures what it is supposed to be measure?
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Meaningfulness
D. Sensitivity

Answer: (A) Validity
Validity is ensuring that the instrument contains appropriate questions about the research topic
80. He plans for his sampling method. Which sampling method gives equal chance to all units in the population to get picked?
A. Random
B. Accidental
C. Quota
D. Judgment

Answer: (A) Random
Random sampling gives equal chance for all the elements in the population to be picked as part of the sample.

81. Raphael is interested to learn more about transcultural nursing because he is assigned at the family suites where most patients come from different cultures and countries. Which of the following designs is appropriate for this study?
A. Grounded theory
B. Ethnography
C. Case study
D. Phenomenology

Answer: (B) Ethnography
Ethnography is focused on patterns of behavior of selected people within a culture
82. The nursing theorist who developed transcultural nursing theory is
A. Dorothea Orem
B. Madeleine Leininger
C. Betty Newman
D. Sr. Callista Roy

Answer: (B) Madeleine Leininger
Madeleine Leininger developed the theory on transcultural theory based on her observations on the behavior of selected people within a culture
83. Which of the following statements best describes a phenomenological study?
A. Involves the description and interpretation of cultural behavior
B. Focuses on the meaning of experiences as those who experience it
C. Involves an in-depth study of an individual or group
D. Involves collecting and analyzing data that aims to develop theories grounded in real-world observations

Answer: (B) Focuses on the meaning of experiences as those who experience it
Phenomenological study involves understanding the meaning of experiences as those who experienced the phenomenon.
84. He systematically plans his sampling plan. Should he decides to include whoever patients are admitted during the study he uses what sampling method?
A. Judgment
B. Accidental
C. Random
D. Quota

Answer: (B) Accidental
Accidental sampling is a non-probability sampling method which includes those who are at the site during data collection.

85. He finally decides to use judgment sampling. Which of the following actions of Raphael is correct?
A. Plans to include whoever is there during his study.
B. Determines the different nationality of patients frequently admitted and decides to get representations samples from each.
C. Assigns numbers for each of the patients, place these in a fishbowl and draw 10 from it.
D. Decides to get 20 samples from the admitted patients

Answer: (B) Determines the different nationality of patients frequently admitted and decides to get representations samples from each.
Judgment sampling involves including samples according to the knowledge of the investigator about the participants in the study.

86. He knows that certain patients who are in a specialized research setting tend to respond psychologically to the conditions of the study. This is referred to as
A. Bias
B. Hawthorne effect
C. Halo effect
D. Horns effect

Answer: (B) Hawthorne effect
Hawthorne effect is based on the study of Elton Mayo and company about the effect of an intervention done to improve the working conditions of the workers on their productivity. It resulted to an increased productivity but not due to the intervention but due to the psychological effects of being observed. They performed differently because they were under observation.
87. Which of the following items refer to the sense of closure that Raphael experiences when data collection ceases to yield any new information?
A. Saturation
B. Precision
C. Limitation
D. Relevance

Answer: (A) Saturation
Saturation is achieved when the investigator can not extract new responses from the informants, but instead, gets the same responses repeatedly.

88. In qualitative research the actual analysis of data begins with:
A. search for themes
B. validation of thematic analysis
C. weave the thematic strands together
D. quasi statistics

Answer: (A) search for themes
The investigator starts data analysis by looking for themes from the verbatim responses of the informants.
89. Raphael is also interested to know the coping abilities of patients who are newly diagnosed to have terminal cancer. Which of the following types of research is appropriate?
A. Phenomenological
B. Ethnographic
C. Grounded Theory
D. Case Study

Answer: (C) Grounded Theory
Grounded theory inductively develops a theory based on the observed processes involving selected people
90. Which of the following titles of the study is appropriate for this study?
A. Lived Experiences of Terminally-Ill Cancer Patients
B. Coping Skills of Terminally-Ill Cancer Patients in a Selected Hospital
C. Two Case Studies of Terminally-Ill Patients in Manila
D. Beliefs & Practices of Patients with Terminal Cancer

Answer: (B) Coping Skills of Terminally-Ill Cancer Patients in a Selected Hospital
The title has a specific phenomenon, sample and research locale.
91. Ms. Montana plans to conduct a research on the use of a new method of pain assessment scale. Which of the following is the second step in the conceptualizing phase of the research process?
A. Formulating the research hypothesis
B. Review related literature
C. Formulating and delimiting the research problem
D. Design the theoretical and conceptual framework

Answer: (B) Review related literature
After formulating and delimiting the research problem, the researcher conducts a review of related literature to determine the extent of what has been done on the study by previous researchers.

92. Which of the following codes of research ethics requires informed consent in all cases governing human subjects?
A. Helsinki Declaration
B. Nuremberg Code
C. Belmont Report
D. ICN Code of Ethics

Answer: (A) Helsinki Declaration
Helsinki Declaration is the first international attempt to set up ethical standards in research involving human research subjects.
93. Which of the following ethical principles was NOT articulated in the Belmont Report?
A. Beneficence
B. Respect for human dignity
C. Justice
D. Non-maleficence

Answer: (D) Non-maleficence
Non-maleficence is not articulated in the Belmont Report. It only includes beneficence, respect for human dignity and justice.
39. Which one of the following criteria should be considered as a top priority in nursing care?
A. Avoidance of destructive changes
B. Preservation of life
C. Assurance of safety
D. Preservation of integrity

Answer: (B) Preservation of life
The preservation of life at all cost is a primary responsibility of the nurse. This is embodied in the Code of Ethics for registered nurses ( BON Resolution 220 s. 2004).
40. Which of the following procedures ensures that the investigator has fully described to prospective subjects the nature of the study and the subject's rights?
A. Debriefing
B. Full disclosure
C. Informed consent
D. Cover data collection

Answer: (B) Full disclosure
Full disclosure is giving the subjects of the research information that they deserve to know prior to the conduct of the study.
94. After the review session has been completed, Karen and the staff signed the document. Which of the following is the purpose of this?
A. Agree about the content of the evaluation.
B. Signify disagreement of the content of the evaluation.
C. Document that Karen and the staff reviewed the evaluation.
D. Serve as basis for future evaluation.

Answer: (C) Document that Karen and the staff reviewed the evaluation.
Signing the document is done to serve as a proof that performance review was conducted during that date and time.
95. A nurse who would like to practice nursing in the Philippines can obtain a license to practice by:
A. Paying the professional tax after taking the board exams
B. Passing the board exams and taking the oath of professionals
C. Paying the examination fee before taking the board exams
D. Undergoing the interview conducted by the Board of Nursing and taking the board exams

Answer: (B) Passing the board exams and taking the oath of professionals
For a nurse to obtain a license to practice nursing in the Philippines, s/he must pass the board examinations and then take the oath of professionals before the Board of Nursing.
96. Reciprocity of license to practice requires that the country of origin of the interested foreign nurse complies with the following conditions:
A. The country of origin has similar preparation for a nurse and has laws allowing Filipino nurses to practice in their country.
B. The Philippines is recognized by the country of origin as one that has high quality of nursing education
C. The country of origin requires Filipinos to take their own board examination
D. The country of origin exempts Filipinos from passing their licensure examination

Answer: (A) The country of origin has similar preparation for a nurse and has laws allowing Filipino nurses to practice in their country.
According to the Philippine Nurses Act of 2002, foreign nurses wanting to practice in the Philippines must show proof that his/her country of origin meets the two essential conditions: a) the requirements for registration between the two countries are substantially the same; and b) the country of origin of the foreign nurse has laws allowing the Filipino nurse to practice in his/her country just like its own citizens.

97. Nurses practicing the profession in the Philippines and are employed in government hospitals are required to pay taxes such as:
A. Both income tax and professional tax
B. Income tax only since they are exempt from paying professional tax
C. Professional tax which is paid by all nurses employed in both government and private hospitals
D. Income tax which paid every March 15 and professional tax which is paid every January 31.

Answer: (B) Income tax only since they are exempt from paying professional tax
According to the Magna Carta for Public Health Workers, government nurses are exempted from paying professional tax. Hence, as an employee in the government, s/he will pay only the income tax.

98. According to RA 9173 Philippine Nursing Act of 2002, a graduate nurse who wants to take must licensure examination must comply with the following qualifications:
A. At least 21 years old, graduate of BSN from a recognized school, and of good moral character
B. At least 18 years old, graduate of BSN from a recognized school and of good moral character
C. At least 18 years old, provided that when s/he passes the board exams, s/he must be at least 21 years old; BSN graduate of a recognized school, and of good moral character
D. Filipino citizen or a citizen of a country where we have reciprocity; graduate of BSN from a recognized school and of good moral character

Answer: (D) Filipino citizen or a citizen of a country where we have reciprocity; graduate of BSN from a recognized school and of good moral character
RA 9173 section 13 states that the qualifications to take the board exams are: Filipino citizen or citizen of a country where the Philippines has reciprocity; of good moral character and graduate of BSN from a recognized school of nursing. There is no explicit provision about the age requirement in RA 9173 unlike in RA7164 (old law).
99. Which of the following is TRUE about membership to the Philippine Nurses Association (PNA)?
A. Membership to PNA is mandatory and is stipulated in the Philippine Nursing Act of 2002
B. Membership to PNA is compulsory for newly registered nurses wanting to enter the practice of nursing in the country
C. Membership to PNA is voluntary and is encouraged by the PRC Code of Ethics for Nurses
D. Membership to PNA is required by government hospitals prior to employment

Answer: (C) Membership to PNA is voluntary and is encouraged by the PRC Code of Ethics for Nurses
Membership to any organization, including the PNA, is only voluntary and this right to join any organization is guaranteed in the 1987 constitution of the Philippines. However, the PRC Code of Ethics states that one of the ethical obligations of the professional nurse towards the profession is to be an active member of the accredited professional organization.
100. When the license of the nurse is revoked, it means that the nurse:
A. Is no longer allowed to practice the profession for the rest of her life
B. Will never have her/his license re-issued since it has been revoked
C. May apply for re-issuance of his/her license based on certain conditions stipulated in RA 9173
D. Will remain unable to practice professional nursing

Answer: (C) May apply for re-issuance of his/her license based on certain conditions stipulated in RA 9173
RA 9173 sec. 24 states that for equity and justice, a revoked license maybe re-issued provided that the following conditions are met: a) the cause for revocation of license has already been corrected or removed; and, b) at least four years has elapsed since the license has been revoked.
101. According to the current nursing law, the minimum educational qualification for a faculty member of a college of nursing is:
A. Only a Master of Arts in Nursing is acceptable
B. Masters degree in Nursing or in the related fields
C. At least a doctorate in nursing
D. At least 18 units in the Master of Arts in Nursing Program

Answer: (B) Masters degree in Nursing or in the related fields
According to RA 9173 sec. 27, the educational qualification of a faculty member teaching in a college of nursing must be masters degree which maybe in nursing or related fields like education, allied health professions, psychology.
102. The educational qualification of a nurse to become a supervisor in a hospital is:
A. BSN with at least 9 units of post graduate studies in nursing administration
B. Master of Arts in Nursing major in administration
C. At least 2 years experience as a headnurse
D. At least 18 units of post graduate studies in nursing administration

Answer: (A) BSN with at least 9 units of post graduate studies in nursing administration
According to RA 9173 sec. 29, the educational qualification to be a supervisor in a hospital is at least 9 units of postgraduate studies in nursing administration. A masters degree in nursing is required for the chief nurse of a secondary or tertiary hospital.
103. The Board of Nursing has quasi-judicial power. An example of this power is:
A. The Board can issue rules and regulations that will govern the practice of nursing
B. The Board can investigate violations of the nursing law and code of ethics
C. The Board can visit a school applying for a permit in collaboration with CHED
D. The Board prepares the board examinations

Answer: (B) The Board can investigate violations of the nursing law and code of ethics
Quasi-judicial power means that the Board of Nursing has the authority to investigate violations of the nursing law and can issue summons, subpoena or subpoena duces tecum as needed.
104. When a nurse causes an injury to the patient and the injury caused becomes the proof of the negligent act, the presence of the injury is said to exemplify the principle of:
A. Force majeure
B. Respondeat superior
C. Res ipsa loquitur
D. Holdover doctrine

Answer: (C) Res ipsa loquitur
Res ipsa loquitur literally means the thing speaks for itself. This means in operational terms that the injury caused is the proof that there was a negligent act.
105. Ensuring that there is an informed consent on the part of the patient before a surgery is done, illustrates the bioethical principle of:
A. Beneficence
B. Autonomy
C. Truth telling/veracity
D. Non-maleficence

Answer: (B) Autonomy
Informed consent means that the patient fully understands what will be the surgery to be done, the risks involved and the alternative solutions so that when s/he give consent it is done with full knowledge and is given freely. The action of allowing the patient to decide whether a surgery is to be done or not exemplifies the bioethical principle of autonomy.
106. When a nurse is providing care to her/his patient, s/he must remember that she is duty bound not to do doing any action that will cause the patient harm. This is the meaning of the bioethical principle:
A. Non-maleficence
B. Beneficence
C. Justice
D. Solidarity

Answer: (A) Non-maleficence
Non-maleficence means do not cause harm or do any action that will cause any harm to the patient/client. To do good is referred as beneficence.
107. When the patient is asked to testify in court, s/he must abide by the ethical principle of:
A. Privileged communication
B. Informed consent
C. Solidarity
D. Autonomy

Answer: (A) Privileged communication
All confidential information that comes to the knowledge of the nurse in the care of her/his patients is considered privileged communications. Hence, s/he is not allowed to just reveal the confidential information arbitrarily. S/he may only be allowed to break the seal of secrecy in certain conditions. One such condition is when the court orders the nurse to testify in a criminal or medico-legal case.
108. When the doctor orders “do not resuscitate”, this means that
A. The nurse need not give due care to the patient since s/he is terminally ill
B. The patient need not be given food and water after all s/he is dying
C. The nurses and the attending physician should not do any heroic or extraordinary measures for the patient
D. The patient need not be given ordinary care so that her/his dying process is hastened

Answer: (C) The nurses and the attending physician should not do any heroic or extraordinary measures for the patient
Do not resuscitate” is a medical order which is written on the chart after the doctor has consulted the family and this means that the members of the health team are not required to give extraordinary measures but cannot withhold the basic needs like food, water, and air. It also means that the nurse is still duty bound to give the basic nursing care to the terminally ill patient and ensure that the spiritual needs of the patient is taken cared of.
109. Which of the following statements is TRUE of abortion in the Philippines?
A. Induced abortion is allowed in cases of rape and incest
B. Induced abortion is both a criminal act and an unethical act for the nurse
C. Abortion maybe considered acceptable if the mother is unprepared for the pregnancy
D. A nurse who performs induced abortion will have no legal accountability if the mother requested that the abortion done on her.

Answer: (B) Induced abortion is both a criminal act and an unethical act for the nurse
Induced abortion is considered a criminal act which is punishable by imprisonment which maybe up to a maximum of 12 years if the nurse gets paid for it. Also, the PRC Code of Ethics states that the nurse must respect life and must not do any action that will destroy life. Abortion is an act that destroys life albeit at the beginning of life.
110. Which of the following is NOT true about a hypothesis? Hypothesis is:
A. testable
B. proven
C. stated in a form that it can be accepted or rejected
D. states a relationship between variables

Answer: (B) proven
Hypothesis is not proven; it is either accepted or rejected. Hypothesis is testable and is defined as a statement that predicts the relationship between variables
111. Which of the following measures will best prevent manipulation of vulnerable groups?
A. Secure informed consent
B. Payment of stipends for subjects
C. Protect privacy of patient
D. Ensure confidentiality of data

Answer: (A) Secure informed consent
Securing informed consent will free the researcher from being accused of manipulating the subjects because by so doing he/she gives ample opportunity for the subjects to weigh the advantages/disadvantages of being included in the study prior to giving his consent. This is done without any element of force, coercion, threat or even inducement.
112. Which of the following procedures ensures that Ms. Montana has fully described to prospective subjects the nature of the study and the subject’s rights?
A. Debriefing
B. Full disclosure
C. Informed consent
D. Covert data collection

Answer: (B) Full disclosure
Full disclosure is giving the subjects of the research information that they deserve to know prior to the conduct of the study
113. This technique refers to the use of multiple referents to draw conclusions about what constitutes the truth
A. Triangulation
B. Experiment
C. Meta-analysis
D. Delphi technique

Answer: (A) Triangulation
Triangulation makes use of different sources of information such as triangulation in design, researcher and instrument.
114. The statement, “Ninety percent (90%) of the respondents are female staff nurses validates previous research findings (Santos, 2001; Reyes, 2005) that the nursing profession is largely a female dominated profession is an example of
A. implication
B. interpretation
C. analysis
D. conclusion

Answer: (B) interpretation
Interpretation includes the inferences of the researcher about the findings of the study.
115. The study is said to be completed when Ms. Montana achieved which of the following activities?
A. Published the results in a nursing journal.
B. Presented the study in a research forum.
C. The results of the study is used by the nurses in the hospital
D. Submitted the research report to the CEO.

Answer: (C) The results of the study is used by the nurses in the hospital
The last step in the research process is the utilization of the research findings.
116. Situation : Stephanie is a nurse researcher of the Patient Care Services Division. She plans to conduct a literature search for her study.

Which of the following is the first step in selecting appropriate materials for her review?
A. Track down most of the relevant resources
B. Copy relevant materials
C. Organize materials according to function
D. Synthesize literature gathered.

Answer: (A) Track down most of the relevant resources
The first step in the review of related literature is to track down relevant sources before copying these. The last step is to synthesize the literature gathered.
117. She knows that the most important categories of information in literature review is the:
A. research findings
B. theoretical framework
C. methodology
D. opinions

Answer: (A) research findings
The research findings is the most important category of information that the researcher should copy because this will give her valuable information as to what has been discovered in past studies about the same topic.
118. She also considers accessing electronic data bases for her literature review. Which of the following is the most useful electronic database for nurses?
A. CINAHL
B. MEDLINE
C. HealthSTAR
D. EMBASE

Answer: (A) CINAHL
This refers to Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature which is a rich source for literature review for nurses. The rest of the sites are for medicine, pharmacy and other health-related sites.
119. While reviewing journal articles, Stephanie got interested in reading the brief summary of the article placed at the beginning of the journal report. Which of the following refers to this?
A. Introduction
B. Preface
C. Abstract
D. Background

Answer: (C) Abstract
Abstract contains concise description of the background of the study, research questions, research objectives, methods, findings, implications to nursing practice as well as keywords used in the study.
120. She notes down ideas that were derived from the description of an investigation written by the person who conducted it. Which type of reference source refers to this?
A. Footnote
B. Bibliography
C. Primary source
D. Endnotes

Answer: (C) Primary source
. This refers to a primary source which is a direct account of the investigation done by the investigator. In contrast to this is a secondary source, which is written by someone other than the original researcher.
121. She came across a study which is referred to as meta-analysis. Which of the following statements best defines this type of study?
A. Treats the findings from one study as a single piece of data
B. Findings from multiple studies are combined to yield a data set which is analyzed as individual data
C. Represents an application of statistical procedures to findings from each report
D. Technique for quantitatively combining and thus integrating the results of multiple studies on a given topic.

Answer: (D) Technique for quantitatively combining and thus integrating the results of multiple studies on a given topic.
Though all the options are correct, the best definition is option D because it combines quantitatively the results and at the same time it integrates the results of the different studies as one finding.
122. This kind of research gathers data in detail about a individual or groups and presented in narrative form, which is
A. Case study
B. Historical
C. Analytical
D. Experimental

Answer: (A) Case study
Case study focuses on in-depth investigations of single entity or small number of entities. It attempts to analyze and understand issues of importance to history, development or circumstances of the person or entity under study.
123. Stephanie is finished with the steps in the conceptual phase when she has conducted the LAST step, which is
A. formulating and delimiting the problem.
B. review of related literature
C. develop a theoretical framework
D. formulate a hypothesis

Answer: (D) formulate a hypothesis
The last step in the conceptualizing phase of the research process is formulating a hypothesis. The rest are the first three steps in this phase.
124. She states the hypothesis of the study. Which of the following is a null hypothesis?
A. Infants who are breastfed have the same weight as those who are bottle fed.
B. Bottle-fed infants have lower weight than breast-fed infants
C. Cuddled infants sleep longer than those who are left by themselves to sleep.
D. Children of absentee parents are more prone to experience depression than those who live with both parents.

Answer: (A) Infants who are breastfed have the same weight as those who are bottle fed.
Null hypothesis predicts that there is no change, no difference or no relationship between the variables in the study
125. She notes that the dependent variable in the hypothesis “Duration of sleep of cuddled infants is longer than those infants who are not cuddled by mothers” is
A. Cuddled infants
B. Duration of sleep
C. Infants
D. Absence of cuddling

Answer: (B) Duration of sleep
Duration of sleep is the ‘effect’ (dependent variable) of cuddling ‘cause’ (independent variable).
126. Situation: Aretha is a nurse researcher in a tertiary hospital. She is tasked to conduct a research on the effects of structured discharge plan for post-open heart surgery patients.

She states the significance of the research problem. Which of the following statements is the MOST significant for this study?
A. Improvement in patient care
B. Development of a theoretical basis for nursing
C. Increase the accountability of nurses.
D. Improves the image of nursing

Answer: (A) Improvement in patient care
The ultimate goal of conducting research is to improve patient care which is achieved by enhancing the practice of nurses when they utilize research results in their practice.

127. Regardless of the significance of the study, the feasibility of the study needs to be considered. Which of the following is considered a priority?
A. Availability of research subjects
B. Budgetary allocation
C. Time frame
D. Experience of the researcher

Answer: (A) Availability of research subjects
Availability is the most important criteria to be considered by the researcher in determining whether the study is feasible or not. No matter how significant the study may be if there are no available subjects/respondents, the study can not push through.
128. Aretha knows that a good research problem exhibits the following characteristics; which one is NOT included?
A. Clearly identified the variables/phenomenon under consideration.
B. Specifies the population being studied.
C. Implies the feasibility of empirical testing
D. Indicates the hypothesis to be tested.

Answer: (D) Indicates the hypothesis to be tested.
Not all studies require a hypothesis such as qualitative studies, which does not deal with variables but with phenomenon or concepts.
129. She states the purposes of the study. Which of the following describe the purpose of a study?

1. Establishes the general direction of a study
2. Captures the essence of the study
3. Formally articulates the goals of the study
4. Sometimes worded as an intent
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4
The purposes of a research study covers all the options indicated.
130. She opts to use interviews in data collection. In addition to validity, what is the other MOST serious weakness of this method?
A. Accuracy
B. Sensitivity
C. Objectivity
D. Reliability

Answer: (A) Accuracy
Accuracy and validity are the most serious weaknesses of the self-report data. This is due to the fact that the respondents sometimes do not want to tell the truth for fear of being rejected or in order to please the interviewer.

131. She plans to subject her instrument to pretesting. Which of the following is NOT achieved in doing pretesting?
A. Determines how much time it takes to administer the instrument package
B. Identify parts that are difficult to read or understand
C. Determine the budgetary allocation for the study
D. Determine if the measures yield data with sufficient variability

Answer: (C) Determine the budgetary allocation for the study
Determining budgetary allocation for the study is not a purpose of doing a pretesting of the instruments. This is done at an earlier stage of the design and planning phase.
132. She tests the instrument whether it looks as though it is measuring appropriate constructs. Which of the following refers to this?
A. Face validity
B. Content validity
C. Construct Validity
D. Criterion-related validity

Answer: (A) Face validity
Face validity measures whether the instrument appears to be measuring the appropriate construct. It is the easiest type of validity testing.
133. Which of the following questions would determine the construct validity of the instrument?
A. “What is this instrument really measuring?”
B. “How representative are the questions on this test of the universe of questions on this topic?”
C. “Does the question asked looks as though it is measuring the appropriate construct?”
D. “Does the instrument correlate highly with an external criterion?

Answer: (A) “What is this instrument really measuring?”
Construct validity aims to validate what the instrument is really measuring. The more abstract the concept, the more difficult to measure the construct.
134. Which of the following experimental research designs would be appropriate for this study if she wants to find out a cause and effect relationship between the structured discharge plan and compliance to home care regimen among the subjects?
A. True experiment
B. Quasi experiment
C. Post-test only design
D. Solomon four-group

Answer: (C) Post-test only design
Post- Test only design is appropriate because it is impossible to measure the compliance to home care regimen variable prior to the discharge of the patient from the hospital.
135. One hypothesis that she formulated is “Compliance to home care regimen is greater among patients who received the structured discharge plan than those who received verbal discharge instructions.’ Which is the independent variable in this study?
A. Structured discharge plan
B. Compliance to home care regimen
C. Post-open heart surgery patients
D. Greater compliance

Answer: (A) Structured discharge plan
Structured discharge plan is the intervention or the ‘cause’ in the study that results to an ‘effect’, which is compliance to home care regimen or the dependent variable.
136. Situation : Alyssa plans to conduct a study about nursing practice in the country. She decides to refresh her knowledge about the different types of research in order to choose the most appropriate design for her study.

She came across surveys, like the Social Weather Station and Pulse Asia Survey. Which of the following is the purpose of this kind of research?
A. Obtains information regarding the prevalence, distribution and interrelationships of variables within a population at a particular time
B. Get an accurate and complete data about a phenomenon.
C. Develop a tool for data gathering.
D. Formulate a framework for the study

Answer: (A) Obtains information regarding the prevalence, distribution and interrelationships of variables within a population at a particular time
Surveys are done to gather information on people’s actions, knowledge, intentions, opinions and attitudes.
137. She will likely use self-report method. Which of the following self-report methods is the most respected method used in surveys?
A. Personal interviews
B. Questionnaires
C. Telephone interviews
D. Rating Scale

Answer: (A) Personal interviews
Personal interviews is the best method of collecting survey data because the quality of information they yield is higher than other methods and because relatively few people refuse to be interviewed in person.
138. Alyssa reads about exploratory research. Which of the following is the purpose of doing this type of research?
A. Inductively develops a theory based on observations about processes involving selected people
B. Makes new knowledge useful and practical.
C. Identifies the variables in the study
D. Finds out the cause and effect relationship between variables

Answer: (C) Identifies the variables in the study
Exploratory research is the first level of investigation and it deals with identifying the variables in the study.
139. She reviews qualitative design of research. Which of the following is true about ethnographic study?
A. Develops theories that increase the knowledge about a certain phenomenon.
B. Focuses on the meanings of life experiences of people
C. Deals with patterns and experiences of a defined cultural group in a holistic fashion
D. In-depth investigation of a single entity

Answer: (C) Deals with patterns and experiences of a defined cultural group in a holistic fashion
Ethnographic research deals with the cultural patterns and beliefs of certain culture groups.

140. She knows that the purpose of doing ethnographic study is to:
A. Understand the worldview of a cultural group
B. Study the life experiences of people
C. Determine the relationship between variables
D. Investigate intensively a single entity

Answer: (A) Understand the worldview of a cultural group
The aim of ethnographers is to learn from the members of a cultural group by understanding their way of life as they perceive and live it.
141. Alyssa wants to learn more about experimental design. Which is the purpose of this research?
A. Test the cause and effect relationship among the variable under a controlled situation
B. Identify the variables in the study
C. Predicts the future based on current intervention
D. Describe the characteristics, opinions, attitudes or behaviors of certain population about a current issue or event

Answer: (A) Test the cause and effect relationship among the variable under a controlled situation
Experimental research is a Level III investigation which determines the cause and effect relationship between variables.
142. She knows that there are three elements of experimental research. Which is NOT included?
A. Manipulation
B. Randomization
C. Control
D. Trial

Answer: (D) Trial
Trial is not an element of experimental research. Manipulation of variables, randomization and control are the three elements of this type of research
143. Alyssa knows that there are times when only manipulation of study variables is possible and the elements of control or randomization are not attendant. Which type of research is referred to this?
A. Field study
B. Quasi-experiment
C. Solomon-Four group design
D. Post-test only design

Answer: (B) Quasi-experiment
Quasi-experiment is done when randomization and control of the variables are not possible.
144. One of the related studies that she reads is a phenomenological research. Which of the following questions is answered by this type of qualitative research?
A. ” What is the way of life of this cultural group?”
B. “What is the effect of the intervention to the dependent variable?”
C. “What the essence of the phenomenon is as experienced by these people?”
D. “What is the core category that is central in explaining what is going on in that social scene?”

Answer: (C) “What the essence of the phenomenon is as experienced by these people?”
Phenomenological research deals with the meaning of experiences as those who experienced the phenomenon understand it.
145. Other studies are categorized according to the time frame. Which of the following refers to a study of variables in the present which is linked to a variable that occurred in the past?
A. Prospective design
B. Retrospective design
C. Cross sectional study
D. Longitudinal study

Answer: (B) Retrospective design
Retrospective studies are done in order to establish a correlation between present variables and the antecedent factors that have caused it.
146. Situation : Harry a new research staff of the Research and Development Department of a tertiary hospital is tasked to conduct a research study about the increased incidence of nosocomial infection in the hospital.

Which of the following ethical issues should he consider in the conduct of his study?

1. Confidentiality of information given to him by the subjects
2. Self-determination which includes the right to withdraw from the study group
3. Privacy or the right not to be exposed publicly
4. Full disclosure about the study to be conducted
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 2, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4

Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4
This includes all the options as these are the four basic rights of subjects for research.
147. Which of the following is the best tool for data gathering?
A. Interview schedule
B. Questionnaire
C. Use of laboratory data.
D. Observation

Answer: (C) Use of laboratory data.
Incidence of nosocomial infection is best collected through the use of biophysiologic measures, particularly in vitro measurements, hence laboratory data is essential.
148. During data collection, Harry encounters a patient who refuses to talk to him. Which of the following is a limitation of the study?
A. Patient’s refusal to fully divulge information.
B. Patients with history of fever and cough
C. Patients admitted or who seeks consultation at the ER and doctors offices
D. Contacts of patients with history of fever and cough

Answer: (A) Patient’s refusal to fully divulge information.
Patient’s refusal to divulge information is a limitation because it is beyond the control of Harry.
149. What type of research is appropriate for this study?
A. Descriptive- correlational
B. Experiment
C. Quasi-experiment
D. Historical

Answer: (A) Descriptive- correlational
Descriptive- correlational study is the most appropriate for this study because it studies the variables that could be the antecedents of the increased incidence of nosocomial infection.
150. In the statement, “Frequent hand washing of health workers decreases the incidence of nosocomial infections among post-surgery patients”, the dependent variable is
A. incidence of nosocomial infections
B. decreases
C. frequent hand washing
D. post-surgery patients

Answer: (A) incidence of nosocomial infections
The dependent variable is the incidence of nosocomial infection, which is the outcome or effect of the independent variable, frequent hand washing.

151. Harry knows that he has to protect the rights of human research subjects. Which of the following actions of Harry ensures anonymity?
A. Keep the identities of the subject secret
B. Obtain informed consent
C. Provide equal treatment to all the subjects of the study.
D. Release findings only to the participants of the study

Answer: (A) Keep the identities of the subject secret
Keeping the identities of the research subject secret will ensure anonymity because this will hinder providing link between the information given to whoever is its source.

152. He is oriented to the use of electronic databases for nursing research. Which of the following will she likely access?
A. MEDLINE
B. National Institute of Nursing Research
C. American Journal of Nursing
D. International Council of Nurses

Answer: (B) National Institute of Nursing Research
National Institute for Nursing Research is a useful source of information for nursing research. The rest of the options may be helpful but NINR is the most useful site for nurses.
153. He develops methods for data gathering. Which of the following criteria of a good instrument refers to the ability of the instrument to yield the same results upon its repeated administration?
A. Validity
B. Specificity
C. Sensitivity
D. Reliability

Answer: (D) Reliability
Reliability is consistency of the research instrument. It refers to the repeatability of the instrument in extracting the same responses upon its repeated administration.
154. Harry is aware of the importance of controlling threats to internal validity for experimental research, which include the following examples EXCEPT:
A. History
B. Maturation
C. Attrition
D. Design

Answer: (D) Design
Design is not a threat to internal validity of the instrument just like the other options.
155. His colleague asks about the external validity of the research findings. Which of the responses of Harry is appropriate? The research findings can be
A. generalized to other settings or samples
B. shown to result only from the effect of the independent variable
C. reflected as results of extraneous variables
D. free of selection biases

Answer: (A) generalized to other settings or samples
External validity refers to the generalizability of research findings to other settings or samples. This is an issue of importance to evidence-based nursing practice.

1 comment:

janmck said...

Ahh.. so you know kuya jomar too? hehe! That's nice! nice to meet you! I attended his workshop too you know. Im also a member of his yahoo groups. hehe!

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