Nurse Seminar/Training: Focused Cardiovascular Asessment Nursing

What: FOCUSED CARDIOVASCULAR ASSESSMENT NURSING SEMINAR 

When: APRIL 5,2011 1:00pm to 5:00pm 

Fee: 600php,Inclusive Of handouts, snack, LOYALTY CARD AND 3 CERTIFICATES with PRC cpe units.

For reservation cOntact my numbers: 09162737617 and 09327297809 lo0k for GRACEY...

Nurse Seminar/Training: Nursing Malpractice

SURPRISE MALPRACTICE: "Why did you sue me?" Nursing Seminar

Time	Friday, April 15 · 1:00pm - 5:00pm
Location	GSN ISEEC OFFICE: WEST AVENUE, QC pacific corporate center unit 502 west avenue.
Created By	Iseec Graceey
More Info	Time Friday, April 15 · 1:00pm - 5:00pm Location GSN ISEEC OFFICE: WEST AVENUE, QC More Info GSN-International Skills Enhancement and Education Center for Nurses SEMINAR TOPIC: SURPRISE MALPRACTICE: "WHY DID YOU SUE ME" *PRC Accredited CPE provider with no. 2009-023‌ We are an accredited Continuing Education Provider of the California Board of Nursing. All GSN-ISEEC's trainings can be applied with Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in the US. Accreditation Number: Provider No. CEP 14585 When: April 15, 2010 1pm-5pm Venue: GSN ISEEC Office LIMITED SLOTS ONLY! *Fees inclusive of handouts, snacks and 3 certificate with PRC CPE units. Note: If you can invite 15 persons (Nurse, BSN Graduates or Students), you are FREE on the Seminar Please refer them to me accordingly so i could note that they are your friends or classmates. * You need to text me if you want reservations to include you on our headcount for seats, food and certificates (Limited Slots only). *We also offer Basic Life Support with AED,Standard First, Comprehensive ECG Training, Comprehensive Wound Management, Basic IVT Training and Advanced Cardiac Life Support For more details contact the ff numbers: 09162737617 and 09327297809 or call 6686898 lo0k for GRACEY...

Nurse Seminar/Training: Hemodialysis

What: HEMODIALYSIS Nursing Seminar

When: APRIL 26, 2011 8am-12noon

RESOURCE SPEAKER: MR. CLAUDO T. BALLES RN, CRN, BOARD MEMBER OF RENAP, HEMODIALYSIS NURSE.

Fee: 600php,Inclusive Of handouts, snack, LOYALTY CARD AND 3 CERTIFICATES with PRC cpe units.

For reservation cOntact my numbers: 09162737617 and 09327297809
lo0k for GRACEY...

Nursing Seminar/Training: University of the Philippines Manila - eHealth, Telemedicine and Health Informatics

UPM-NThC Schedule of Seminar/Trainings

Dear Sir/Madam:

Greetings from the University of the Philippines Manila – National Telehealth Center!

Being the forerunner of eHealth, Telemedicine and Health Informatics in the country, the UPM – NThC will be holding a series of seminar-workshops on eHealth, Telemedicine and Health Informatics starting this summer.

The primary objective of this is to increase the knowledge of health professionals (doctors, nurses and midwives) and IT personnel (software developers and engineers) on the interplay of information technology and health.

On September 25, 2010, we shall be holding a Seminar on Health Informatics at the University of the Philippines Manila, Pedro Gil St. Cor. Taft Avenue, Manila, from 8:00am to 5:00pm.

We wish to invite you and your staff to attend this event. The registration fee shall be Php 500.00, which shall include certificate of attendance.

We are also announcing our line-up of schedule for our seminars and workshop-trainings:

August 27, 2010 - OpenMRS training, eRecords for Clinics and Hospitals

September 10, 2010 - OpenMRS training, eRecords for Clinics and Hospitals

September 15-17, 2010 - Community Health Information Tracking System (CHITS), eRecords for Health Centers training

September 24, 2010 - OpenMRS training, eRecords for Clinics and Hospitals

October 9, 2010 -Seminar on Health Informatics

October 8, 2010 - OpenMRS training, eRecords for Clinics and Hospitals

October 13 - 15, 2010 - Community Health Information Tracking System (CHITS), eRecords for Health Centers training

October 22, 2010 - OpenMRS training, eRecords for Clinics and Hospitals

November 12, 2010 - OpenMRS training, eRecords for Clinics and Hospitals

November 19, 2010 - OpenMRS training, eRecords for Clinics and Hospitals

November 20, 2010 - Seminar on Health Informatics

November 24-26, 2010 - Community Health Information Tracking System (CHITS), eRecords for Health
Centers training

CHITS training: P2,500 (inclusive of snacks, lunch, kit for 2 and a half days training)
OpenMRS: P2,000 (inclusive of snacks, lunch, kit)

For payment options, you may pay directly at UP Manila National Telehealth Center, 3rd Floor, Information Technology Complex, Philippine General Hospital, Taft Avenue, Manila from Tuesday to
Friday, 7:00am-6:00pm.

You may also pay via bank deposit:
Bank Name: Development Bank of the Philippines
Branch: Arroceros Branch
Account Name: UP Manila Trust Fund
Account Number: 0410-002882-033

For details on early & student registration, please call 5256501 and coordinate with Ms. Vivian Biala.

Attached herewith is the call out containing the topics covered by the
seminar.

Thank you very much!

Sincerely,

Dr. Alvin B. Marcelo
Director


For details, contact:

Noel A. Bañez, R.N.
Telehealth Nurse - Coordinator for Primary Health Care Informatics and CHITS
University of the Philippines Manila - National Telehealth Center (UPM-NThC)

3/F Information Technology (IT) Complex
Philippine General Hospital (PGH)
1000 Manila, Philippines
Tel. No. begin_of_the_skype_highlighting +63 2 525 6501 end_of_the_skype_highlighting

http://www.telehealth.ph
http://www.chits.ph

Source

Seminar on Tuberculosis Nursing

Global Learning Innovation invites you to a seminar entitled:
"TUBERCULOSIS NURSING"

Topics Include:
-Tuberculosis:A Global Perspective
-Treatment, Management Updates
-Nursing in TB Control

Speaker: WINSTON A. PALASI, MD,MPH,RN, -Dir., Field Operations Division-Philippine TB Society, Inc., Operations Manager, PTSI-TB LINC(USAID Project)

on April 18, 2010 (Sunday) 8:00 am til 12:00 noon
at SM Cinema 4-The Block, SM North Edsa

Fee: 600 pesos (Pre-registration needs half of the payment before the said date. Meet up with Michelle or payments can be made thru LBC or bank)

-with 3 certificates, break time refreshments, cd-rom handouts

For reservation contact: Ms. Michelle dela Cruz 09278359861

GLOBAL LEARNING INNOVATION IS AN ACCREDITED CPE PROVIDER BY THE PRC-CPE COUNCIL OF NURSING. ACCREDITATION NO. 2009-026

Seminar on Cancer Trends and Updates

CANCER TRENDS & UPDATES
Subtopics are:
-New Treatment Modalities
-Current Recommendation on Prevention and Screening
-New Discoveries in Aging and Cancer

When: February 7, 2010 (Sunday); 8:00 am til 12:00 noon
Where: SM North the Block Cinema

Speaker: Dr. John Non MD,RMT,

Fee: 600 pesos (Pre-registration needs half of the payment before the said date. Meet up with Michelle or payments can be made thru LBC or bank)

-with 3 certificates, break time refreshments, cd-rom, handouts

For reservation contact: Ms. Michelle dela Cruz 09278359861

Source

Seminar about Cardiovascular Nursing

Global Learning Innovation invites you to a seminar entitled:

Cardiovascular: Issues in health care

Subtopics are:
-Cardiovascular Differential Diagnosis
-Monitoring the effects of Anticholinergic Drugs
-Issues & challenges in cardiac rehabilitation & management

on October 4, 2009 (Sunday) 8:00 am til 12:00 noon
at Cinema 3 SM North Edsa

Speaker: Marcellus Francis Ramirez,MD,RMT

Fee: 600 pesos (Pre-registration needs half of the payment before the said date. Meet up with Michelle)

-with 3 certificates, break time refreshments, cd-rom, handouts

For reservation contact: Ms. Michelle dela Cruz 09278359861

Source

Cardiovascular nursing questions

Medical Surgical Nursing review materials about Cardiovascular.


Make your own Quiz!



Correct Answers

1. A home care nurse has given instructions to a client who is beginning therapy with digoxin(Lanoxin). The nurse would evaluate that the client needs reinforcement of the instructions if the client made which of the following statements?

a. " I should call the doctor if my daily pulse rate is under 60 or over 100. "
b. " If I miss a dose, I should just take two the next day. "
c. " I shouldn't change brands without asking the doctor first."
d. " The pills should be kept in the original container so that they don't get mixed up with my other medicines. "

2. A home care nurse who is visiting a client is preparing to remove a dressing from a leg ulcer, the nurse notes that the ulcer is pale and deep and is surrounded by tissue that is cool to touch. The nurse would document that the client's leg ulcer most appropriately identifies which type of ulcer?

a. A vascular ulcer
b. A venous stasis ulcer
c. An arterial ulcer
d. A stage one ulcer

3. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who will be admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the right leg. The nurse develops the plan expecting that the physiscian will precribe which of the following?

a. Maintain the affected leg in a dependent position.
b. Apply cool packs to the affected leg for 20 minutes every 4 hours
c. Maintain bed rest
d. Administer a narcotic analgesic every 4 hours around the clock

4. A nurse is monitoring a client with acute pericarditis for signs of cardiac tamponade. Which assessment finding would indicate the presence of this complication?

a. A pulse rate of 60 beheats per minute
b. Flat neck veins
c. Muffled or distant heart sounds
d. A blood pressure (BP) 0f 128/82 mmHg

5. A clinic nurse is providing instructions to a client with hypertension who will be taking captopril (Capoten). Which instruction would not be a component of the teaching plan?

a. Drink increased amounts of water
b. Change position slowly
c. Avoid taking hot baths or showers
d. Sit down and rest if dizziness or lightheadedness occurs

6. A nurse is providing instructions to a client with a diagnosis of hypertension about items to avoid that are high in sodium. The nurse instructs the client to avoid which of the following?

a. Cantaloupe
b. Broccoli
c. Mineral water
d. Bananas

7. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client transferred to the medical unit from the critical care unit. The nurse notes that the client received intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) therapy while in the critical care unit. The nurse would suspect that the client received this therapy for which the following conditions?

a. Congestive heart failure
b.Cardiogenic shock
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Aortic insufficiency

8. A nurse in the medical unit is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has been transferred from the intensive care unit. The nurse notes that a cardiac troponin T level was drawn on the client while in the intensive care unit. The nurse determines that this test was performed to assisst in diagnosing which of the following conditions?

a. Myocardial Infarction
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Ventricular tachycardia
d. Atrial fibrillation

9. A nurse is caring for a client with cardiac disease who has been placed on cardiac monitor. The nurse notes that the client has developed atrial fibrillation and has a ventricular rate of 150 beats per minute. The nurse would next assess the client for which of the following?

a. Flat neck veins
b. Complaints of nausea
c. Complaints of headache
d. hypotension

10. A nurse is performing an assessment on a client with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment would elicit specific information about the client's left-sided heart function?

a. Listening to lung sounds
b. Assessing for peripheral and sacral edema
c. Assessing for jugular vein distention
d. Monitoring for organomegaly

11. A clinic nurse is reviewing the assessment findings of a client who has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) as a treatment for hypertension. Which of the following, if noted in the client's record, would indicate that the client is experiencing a side effects related to the medication?

a. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
b. A potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L
c. Client complaints of contsipation
d. Client complaints of dry skin

12. A nurse is reviewing the electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm strip obtained on a client with diagnosis of myocardial infarction. The nurse notes that the PR interval is 0.20 seconds. The nurse determines that this is:

a. A normal finding
b. Indicative of atrial flutter
c. Indicative of impending reinfarction
d. Indicative of atrial fibrillation

13. A nurse is documenting information in a client's chart when the ECG telemetry alarm sounds. The nurse notes that the client is in ventricular tachycardia (VT). The nurse quickly rushes to the bedside and performs which assessment first?

a. Blood Pressure
b. Cardiac rate
c. Respiratory rate
d. Responsiveness of the client

14. A left catheter is inserted into a client during cardiac surgery. The nurse is monitoring the left atrial pressure (LAP) and documents that the pressure is normal if which of the following pressure is noted?

a. 8 mm Hg
b. 15 mm Hg
c. 25 mm Hg
d. 32 mm Hg

15. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with varicose veins who develops skin breakdown as a result of the disorder and secondary infection. The nurse includes which of the following as a priority in the plan of care?

a. Keep the legs aligned with the heart.
b. Position the client onto the side every shift.
c. Clean the skin with alcohol every hour.
d. Elevate the legs higher than the heart.

16. A nurse is assisting in performing an arterial blood gas analysis on a client. The nurse prepares to initiate which of the following after the blood gas specimen is drawn?

a. Cover the site with 4x4 gauze
b. Apply warm packs to the site
c. Perform range of motion to the fingers of the hand
d. Apply pressure to the site

17. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). The client is experiencing chest pain that is unrelieved by the administration of nitroglycerin, The nurse administers morphine to the client as prescribed by the physician. Following administration of the morphine sulfate, the nurse plans to monitor:

a. Mental status
b. Respirations and blood pressure
c. Urinary output
d. Temperature and blood pressure

18. A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). The client calls the nurse because the client is experiencing chest pain. The nurse administers a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet as prescribed. The chest pain is unrelieved by the nitroglycerin. The next nursing action is which of the following?

a. Administer another nitroglycerin tablet
b. Increase the flow rate of the oxygen
c. Contact the physican
d. Call the client's family

19. A nurse is performing an admission assessment of a client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris who takes nitroglycerin for chest pain at home. During the admission, the client complains of the chest pain. The nurse would immediately ask the client which of the following questions?
a. " Are you having any nausea? "
*b. "Where is the pain located?"
c. "Are you allergic to any medications?"
d. "Do you have your nitroglycerin with you?"

20. A client si going to have a cardiac catheterization to diagnose the extent of coronary artery disease. The nurse places highest priority on teaching the client to report which of the following sensations during the procedure?

a. Pressure at the insertion site
b. Urge to cough
c. Warm, flushed feeling
*d. Chest pain

21. A client admitted to the hospital with coronary artery disease complains of dyspnea at rest. A nurse caring for the client uses which of the following items as the best means to monitor respiratory status on an ongoing basis?

a. Oxygen flow meter
*b. Oxygen saturation monitor
c. Telemetry cardiac monitor
d. Apnea monitor

22. A client with a history of anginal pectoris tells the nurse that chest pain usually occurs after going up two flights of stairs or after walking four blocks. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing which of the following types of angina?

a. Stable
b. unstable
c. Variant
d. Intractable

23. A client has experienced an episode of pulmonary edema. The nurse determines that the client's respiratory status is improving after this episode if which of the following breath sounds is noted?

a. Rales throughout the lung fields
b. Crackles in the bases
c. Wheezes
d. Rhonchi

24. A client is scheduled to begin therapy with acetazolamide (Diamox) for the management of glaucoma. Prior to the initiating therapy, the nurse assesses the client for a history of allergy or sensitivity to which of the following?

a. Corticosteroids
b. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents
c. Penicillin
d. Sulfa drugs

25. A client's ECG strip shows atrial and ventricular rates of 70 complexes per minute. The P-R interval is 0.16 second, the QRS complex measures 0.06 second, and the P-R interval is slightly irregular. The nurse interprets this rhythm to be which of the following?

a. Sinus bradycardia
b. Normal sinus rhythm
c. Sinus tachycardia
d. Sinus arrythmia

Psychiatry Nursing ( 21 - 40 )

21. The nurse teaches the parents of a mentally retarded child regarding her care. The following guidelines may be taught except:
A. overprotection of the child
B. patience, routine and repetition
C. assisting the parents set realistic goals
D. giving reasonable compliments

Answer: (A) overprotection of the child
The child with mental retardation should not be overprotected but need protection from injury and the teasing of other children. B,C, and D Children with mental retardation have learning difficulty. They should be taught with patience and repetition, start from simple to complex, use visuals and compliment them for motivation. Realistic expectations should be set and optimize their capability.
22. The parents express apprehensions on their ability to care for their maladaptive child. The nurse identifies what nursing diagnosis:
A. hopelessness
B. altered parenting role
C. altered family process
D. ineffective coping

Answer: (B) altered parenting role
Altered parenting role refers to the inability to create an environment that promotes optimum growth and development of the child. This is reflected in the parent’s inability to care for the child. A. This refers to lack of choices or inability to mobilize one’s resources. C. Refers to change in family relationship and function. D. Ineffective coping is the inability to form valid appraisal of the stressor or inability to use available resources
23. A 5 year old boy is diagnosed to have autistic disorder.
Which of the following manifestations may be noted in a client with autistic disorder?

A. argumentativeness, disobedience, angry outburst
B. intolerance to change, disturbed relatedness, stereotypes
C. distractibility, impulsiveness and overactivity
D. aggression, truancy, stealing, lying

Answer: (B) intolerance to change, disturbed relatedness, stereotypes
These are manifestations of autistic disorder. A. These manifestations are noted in Oppositional Defiant Disorder, a disruptive disorder among children. C. These are manifestations of Attention Deficit Disorder D. These are the manifestations of Conduct Disorder
24. The therapeutic approach in the care of an autistic child include the following EXCEPT:
A. Engage in diversionary activities when acting -out
B. Provide an atmosphere of acceptance
C. Provide safety measures
D. Rearrange the environment to activate the child

Answer: (D) Rearrange the environment to activate the child
The child with autistic disorder does not want change. Maintaining a consistent environment is therapeutic. A. Angry outburst can be rechannelled through safe activities. B. Acceptance enhances a trusting relationship. C. Ensure safety from self-destructive behaviors like head banging and hair pulling.
25. According to Piaget a 5 year old is in what stage of development:
A. Sensory motor stage
B. Concrete operations
C. Pre-operational
D. Formal operation

Answer: (C) Pre-operational
Pre-operational stage (2-7 years) is the stage when the use of language, the use of symbols and the concept of time occur. A. Sensory-motor stage (0-2 years) is the stage when the child uses the senses in learning about the self and the environment through exploration. B. Concrete operations (7-12 years) when inductive reasoning develops. D. Formal operations (2 till adulthood) is when abstract thinking and deductive reasoning develop.
26. Situation : The nurse assigned in the detoxification unit attends to various patients with substance-related disorders.

A 45 years old male revealed that he experienced a marked increase in his intake of alcohol to achieve the desired effect This indicates:
A. withdrawal
B. tolerance
C. intoxication
D. psychological dependence

Answer: (B) tolerance
tolerance refers to the increase in the amount of the substance to achieve the same effects. A. Withdrawal refers to the physical signs and symptoms that occur when the addictive substance is reduced or withheld. B. Intoxication refers to the behavioral changes that occur upon recent ingestion of a substance. D. Psychological dependence refers to the intake of the substance to prevent the onset of withdrawal symptoms.
27. The client admitted for alcohol detoxification develops increased tremors, irritability, hypertension and fever. The nurse should be alert for impending:
A. delirium tremens
B. Korsakoff’s syndrome
C. esophageal varices
D. Wernicke’s syndrome

Answer: (A) delirium tremens
Delirium Tremens is the most extreme central nervous system irritability due to withdrawal from alcohol B. This refers to an amnestic syndrome associated with chronic alcoholism due to a deficiency in Vit. B C. This is a complication of liver cirrhosis which may be secondary to alcoholism . D. This is a complication of alcoholism characterized by irregularities of eye movements and lack of coordination.
28. The care for the client places priority to which of the following:
A. Monitoring his vital signs every hour
B. Providing a quiet, dim room
C. Encouraging adequate fluids and nutritious foods
D. Administering Librium as ordered

Answer: (A) Monitoring his vital signs every hour
Pulse and blood pressure are usually elevated during withdrawal, Elevation may indicate impending delirium tremens B. Client needs quiet, well lighted, consistent and secure environment. Excessive stimulation can aggravate anxiety and cause illusions and hallucinations. C. Adequate nutrition with sulpplement of Vit. B should be ensured. D. Sedatives are used to relieve anxiety.
29. Another client is brought to the emergency room by friends who state that he took something an hour ago. He is actively hallucinating, agitated, with irritated nasal septum.
A. Heroin
B. cocaine
C. LSD
D. marijuana

Answer: (B) cocaine
The manifestations indicate intoxication with cocaine, a CNS stimulant. A. Intoxication with heroine is manifested by euphoria then impairment in judgment, attention and the presence of papillary constriction. C. Intoxication with hallucinogen like LSD is manifested by grandiosity, hallucinations, synesthesia and increase in vital signs D. Intoxication with Marijuana, a cannabinoid is manifested by sensation of slowed time, conjunctival redness, social withdrawal, impaired judgment and hallucinations.
30. A client is admitted with needle tracts on his arm, stuporous and with pin point pupil will likely be managed with:
A. Naltrexone (Revia)
B. Narcan (Naloxone)
C. Disulfiram (Antabuse)
D. Methadone (Dolophine)

Answer: (B) Narcan (Naloxone)
Narcan is a narcotic antagonist used to manage the CNS depression due to overdose with heroin. A. This is an opiate receptor blocker used to relieve the craving for heroine C. Disulfiram is used as a deterrent in the use of alcohol. D. Methadone is used as a substitute in the withdrawal from heroine
31. Situation: An old woman was brought for evaluation due to the hospital for evaluation due to increasing forgetfulness and limitations in daily function.

The daughter revealed that the client used her toothbrush to comb her hair. She is manifesting:
A. apraxia
B. aphasia
C. agnosia
D. amnesia

Answer: (C) agnosia
This is the inability to recognize objects. A. Apraxia is the inability to execute motor activities despite intact comprehension. B. Aphasia is the loss of ability to use or understand words. D. Amnesia is loss of memory.
32. She tearfully tells the nurse “I can’t take it when she accuses me of stealing her things.” Which response by the nurse will be most therapeutic?
A. ”Don’t take it personally. Your mother does not mean it.”
B. “Have you tried discussing this with your mother?”
C. “This must be difficult for you and your mother.”
D. “Next time ask your mother where her things were last seen.”

Answer: (C) “This must be difficult for you and your mother.”
This reflecting the feeling of the daughter that shows empathy. A and D. Giving advise does not encourage verbalization. B. This response does not encourage verbalization of feelings.
33. The primary nursing intervention in working with a client with moderate stage dementia is ensuring that the client:
A. receives adequate nutrition and hydration
B. will reminisce to decrease isolation
C. remains in a safe and secure environment
D. independently performs self care

Answer: (C) remains in a safe and secure environment
Safety is a priority consideration as the client’s cognitive ability deteriorates.. A is appropriate interventions because the client’s cognitive impairment can affect the client’s ability to attend to his nutritional needs, but it is not the priority B. Patient is allowed to reminisce but it is not the priority. D. The client in the moderate stage of Alzheimer’s disease will have difficulty in performing activities independently
34. She says to the nurse who offers her breakfast, “Oh no, I will wait for my husband. We will eat together” The therapeutic response by the nurse is:
A. “Your husband is dead. Let me serve you your breakfast.”
B. “I’ve told you several times that he is dead. It’s time to eat.”
C. “You’re going to have to wait a long time.”
D. “What made you say that your husband is alive?

Answer: (A) “Your husband is dead. Let me serve you your breakfast.”
The client should be reoriented to reality and be focused on the here and now.. B. This is not a helpful approach because of the short term memory of the client. C. This indicates a pompous response. D. The cognitive limitation of the client makes the client incapable of giving explanation.
35. Dementia unlike delirium is characterized by:
A. slurred speech
B. insidious onset
C. clouding of consciousness
D. sensory perceptual change

Answer: (B) insidious onset
Dementia has a gradual onset and progressive deterioration. It causes pronounced memory and cognitive disturbances. A,C and D are all characteristics of delirium.
36. Situation: A 17 year old gymnast is admitted to the hospital due to weight loss and dehydration secondary to starvation.

Which of the following nursing diagnoses will be given priority for the client?
A. altered self-image
B. fluid volume deficit
C. altered nutrition less than body requirements
D. altered family process

Answer: (B) fluid volume deficit
Fluid volume deficit is the priority over altered nutrition (A) since the situation indicates that the client is dehydrated. A and D are psychosocial needs of a client with anorexia nervosa but they are not the priority.
37. What is the best intervention to teach the client when she feels the need to starve?
A. Allow her to starve to relieve her anxiety
B. Do a short term exercise until the urge passes
C. Approach the nurse and talk out her feelings
D. Call her mother on the phone and tell her how she feels

Answer: (C) Approach the nurse and talk out her feelings
The client with anorexia nervosa uses starvation as a way of managing anxiety. Talking out feelings with the nurse is an adaptive coping. A. Starvation should not be encouraged. Physical safety is a priority. Without adequate nutrition, a life threatening situation exists. B. The client with anorexia nervosa is preoccupied with losing weight due to disturbed body image. Limits should be set on attempts to lose more weight. D. The client may have a domineering mother which causes the client to feel ambivalent. The client will not discuss her feelings with her mother.
38. The client with anorexia nervosa is improving if:
A. She eats meals in the dining room.
B. Weight gain
C. She attends ward activities.
D. She has a more realistic self concept.

Answer: (B) Weight gain
Weight gain is the best indication of the client’s improvement. The goal is for the client to gain 1-2 pounds per week. (A)The client may purge after eating. (C) Attending an activity does not indicate improvement in nutritional state. (D) Body image is a factor in anorexia nervosa but it is not an indicator for improvement.
39. The characteristic manifestation that will differentiate bulimia nervosa from anorexia nervosa is that bulimic individuals
A. have episodic binge eating and purging
B. have repeated attempts to stabilize their weight
C. have peculiar food handling patterns
D. have threatened self-esteem

Answer: (A) have episodic binge eating and purging
Bulimia is characterized by binge eating which is characterized by taking in a large amount of food over a short period of time. B and C are characteristics of a client with anorexia nervosa D. Low esteem is noted in both eating disorders
40. A nursing diagnosis for bulimia nervosa is powerlessness related to feeling not in control of eating habits. The goal for this problem is:
A. Patient will learn problem solving skills
B. Patient will have decreased symptoms of anxiety.
C. Patient will perform self care activities daily.
D. Patient will verbalize how to set limits on others.

Answer: (A) Patient will learn problem solving skills
if the client learns problem solving skills she will gain a sense of control over her life. (B) Anxiety is caused by powerlessness. (C) Performing self care activities will not decrease ones powerlessness (D) Setting limits to control imposed by others is a necessary skill but problem solving skill is the priority.

Integrated Management Of Childhood Illness

IMCI

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Pharma Psyche Mnemonics

Pharma Psyche

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Symptoms Mnemonics

~Sx's Mneumonics

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Fundamentals of Nursing Test II Answer Key

Fundamentals of Nursing Test II

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PSYCHIATRIC NURSING (1 - 20 )

1. Mental health is defined as:
A. The ability to distinguish what is real from what is not.
B. A state of well-being where a person can realize his own abilities can cope with normal stresses of life and work productively.
C. Is the promotion of mental health, prevention of mental disorders, nursing care of patients during illness and rehabilitation
D. Absence of mental illness

Answer: (B) A state of well-being where a person can realize his own abilities can cope with normal stresses of life and work productively.
Mental health is a state of emotional and psychosocial well being. A mentally healthy individual is self aware and self directive, has the ability to solve problems, can cope with crisis without assistance beyond the support of family and friends fulfill the capacity to love and work and sets goals and realistic limits. A. This describes the ego function reality testing. C. This is the definition of Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing. D. Mental health is not just the absence of mental illness.
2. Which of the following describes the role of a technician?
A. Administers medications to a schizophrenic patient.
B. The nurse feeds and bathes a catatonic client
C. Coordinates diverse aspects of care rendered to the patient
D. Disseminates information about alcohol and its effects.

Answer: (A) Administers medications to a schizophrenic patient.
Administration of medications and treatments, assessment, documentation are the activities of the nurse as a technician. B. Activities as a parent surrogate. C. Refers to the ward manager role. D. Role as a teacher.
3. Liza says, “Give me 10 minutes to recall the name of our college professor who failed many students in our anatomy class.” She is operating on her:
A. Subconscious
B. Conscious
C. Unconscious
D. Ego

Answer: (A) Subconscious
Subconscious refers to the materials that are partly remembered partly forgotten but these can be recalled spontaneously and voluntarily. B. This functions when one is awake. One is aware of his thoughts, feelings actions and what is going on in the environment. C. The largest potion of the mind that contains the memories of one’s past particularly the unpleasant. It is difficult to recall the unconscious content. D. The conscious self that deals and tests reality.
4. The superego is that part of the psyche that:
A. Uses defensive function for protection.
B. Is impulsive and without morals.
C. Determines the circumstances before making decisions.
D. The censoring portion of the mind.

Answer: (D) The censoring portion of the mind.
The critical censoring portion of one’s personality; the conscience. A. This refers to the ego function that protects itself from anything that threatens it.. B. The Id is composed of the untamed, primitive drives and impulses. C. This refers to the ego that acts as the moderator of the struggle between the id and the superego.
5. Primary level of prevention is exemplified by:
A. Helping the client resume self care.
B. Ensuring the safety of a suicidal client in the institution.
C. Teaching the client stress management techniques
D. Case finding and surveillance in the community

Answer: (C) Teaching the client stress management techniques
Primary level of prevention refers to the promotion of mental health and prevention of mental illness. This can be achieved by rendering health teachings such as modifying ones responses to stress. A. This is tertiary level of prevention that deals with rehabilitation. B and D. Secondary level of prevention which involves reduction of actual illness through early detection and treatment of illness.
6. Situation: In a home visit done by the nurse, she suspects that the wife and her child are victims of abuse.

Which of the following is the most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
A. “Are you being threatened or hurt by your partner?
B. “Are you frightened of you partner”
C. “Is something bothering you?”
D. “What happens when you and your partner argue?”

Answer: (A) “Are you being threatened or hurt by your partner?
The nurse validates her observation by asking simple, direct question. This also shows empathy. B, C, and D are indirect questions which may not lead to the discussion of abuse.
7. The wife admits that she is a victim of abuse and opens up about her persistent distaste for sex. This sexual disorder is:
A. Sexual desire disorder
B. Sexual arousal Disorder
C. Orgasm Disorder
D. Sexual Pain Disorder

Answer: (A) Sexual desire disorder
Has little or no sexual desire or has distaste for sex. B. Failure to maintain the physiologic requirements for sexual intercourse. C. Persistent and recurrent inability to achieve an orgasm. D. Also called dyspareunia. Individuals with this disorder suffer genital pain before, during and after sexual intercourse.
8. What would be the best approach for a wife who is still living with her abusive husband?
A. “Here’s the number of a crisis center that you can call for help .”
B. “Its best to leave your husband.”
C. “Did you discuss this with your family?”
D. “ Why do you allow yourself to be treated this way”

Answer: (A) “Here’s the number of a crisis center that you can call for help .”
Protection is a priority concern in abuse. Help the victim to develop a plan to ensure safety. B. Do not give advice to leave the abuser. Making decisions for the victim further erodes her esteem. However discuss options available. C. The victim tends to isolate from friends and family. D. This is judgmental. Avoid in anyway implying that she is at fault.
9. Which comment about a 3 year old child if made by the parent may indicate child abuse?
A. “Once my child is toilet trained, I can still expect her to have some"
B. “When I tell my child to do something once, I don’t expect to have to tell"
C. “My child is expected to try to do things such as, dress and feed.”
D. “My 3 year old loves to say NO.”

Answer: (B) “When I tell my child to do something once, I don’t expect to have to tell"
Abusive parents tend to have unrealistic expectations on the child. A,B and C are realistic expectations on a 3 year old.
10. The primary nursing intervention for a victim of child abuse is:
A. Assess the scope of the problem
B. Analyze the family dynamics
C. Ensure the safety of the victim
D. Teach the victim coping skills

Answer: (C) Ensure the safety of the victim
The priority consideration is the safety of the victim. Attend to the physical injuries to ensure the physiologic safety and integrity of the child. Reporting suspected case of abuse may deter recurrence of abuse. A,B and D may be addressed later.
11. Situation: A 30 year old male employee frequently complains of low back pain that leads to frequent absences from work. Consultation and tests reveal negative results.

The client has which somatoform disorder?
A. Somatization Disorder
B. Hypochondriaisis
C. Conversion Disorder
D. Somatoform Pain Disorder

Answer: (D) Somatoform Pain Disorder
This is characterized by severe and prolonged pain that causes significant distress. A. This is a chronic syndrome of somatic symptoms that cannot be explained medically and is associated with psychosocial distress. B. This is an unrealistic preoccupation with a fear of having a serious illness. C. Characterized by alteration or loss in sensory or motor function resulting from a psychological conflict.
12. Freud explains anxiety as:
A. Strives to gratify the needs for satisfaction and security
B. Conflict between id and superego
C. A hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal reaction to stress
D. A conditioned response to stressors

Answer: (B) Conflict between id and superego
Freud explains anxiety as due to opposing action drives between the id and the superego. A. Sullivan identified 2 types of needs, satisfaction and security. Failure to gratify these needs may result in anxiety. C. Biomedical perspective of anxiety. D. Explanation of anxiety using the behavioral model.
13. The following are appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client EXCEPT:
A. Ineffective individual coping
B. Alteration in comfort, pain
C. Altered role performance
D. Impaired social interaction

Answer: (D) Impaired social interaction
The client may not have difficulty in social exchange. The cues do not support this diagnosis. A. The client maladaptively uses body symptoms to manage anxiety. B. The client will have discomfort due to pain. C. The client may fail to meet environmental expectations due to pain.
14. The following statements describe somatoform disorders:
A. Physical symptoms are explained by organic causes
B. It is a voluntary expression of psychological conflicts
C. Expression of conflicts through bodily symptoms
D. Management entails a specific medical treatment

Answer: (C) Expression of conflicts through bodily symptoms
Bodily symptoms are used to handle conflicts. A. Manifestations do not have an organic basis. B. This occurs unconsciously. D. Medical treatment is not used because the disorder does not have a structural or organic basis.
15. What would be the best response to the client’s repeated complaints of pain:
A. “I know the feeling is real tests revealed negative results.”
B. . “I think you’re exaggerating things a little bit.”
C. “Try to forget this feeling and have activities to take it off your mind”
D. “So tell me more about the pain”

Answer: (A) “I know the feeling is real tests revealed negative results.”
Shows empathy and offers information. B. This is a demeaning statement. C. This belittles the client’s feelings. D. Giving undue attention to the physical symptom reinforces the complaint.
16. Situation: A nurse may encounter children with mental disorders. Her knowledge of these various disorders is vital.

When planning school interventions for a child with a diagnosis of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, a guide to remember is to:
A. provide as much structure as possible for the child
B. ignore the child’s overactivity.
C. encourage the child to engage in any play activity to dissipate energy
D. remove the child from the classroom when disruptive behavior occurs

Answer: (A) provide as much structure as possible for the child
Decrease stimuli for behavior control thru an environment that is free of distractions, a calm non –confrontational approach and setting limit to time allotted for activities. B. The child will not benefit from a lenient approach. C. Dissipate energy through safe activities. D. This indicates that the classroom environment lacks structure.
17. The child with conduct disorder will likely demonstrate:
A. Easy distractibility to external stimuli.
B. Ritualistic behaviors
C. Preference for inanimate objects.
D. Serious violations of age related norms.

Answer: (D) Serious violations of age related norms.
This is a disruptive disorder among children characterized by more serious violations of social standards such as aggression, vandalism, stealing, lying and truancy. A. This is characteristic of attention deficit disorder. B and C. These are noted among children with autistic disorder.
18. Ritalin is the drug of choice for chidren with ADHD. The side effects of the following may be noted:
A. increased attention span and concentration
B. increase in appetite
C. sleepiness and lethargy
D. bradycardia and diarrhea

Answer: (A) increased attention span and concentration
The medication has a paradoxic effect that decrease hyperactivity and impulsivity among children with ADHD. B, C, D. Side effects of Ritalin include anorexia, insomnia, diarrhea and irritability.
19. School phobia is usually treated by:
A. Returning the child to the school immediately with family support.
B. Calmly explaining why attendance in school is necessary
C. Allowing the child to enter the school before the other children
D. Allowing the parent to accompany the child in the classroom

Answer: (A) Returning the child to the school immediately with family support.
Exposure to the feared situation can help in overcoming anxiety. A. This will not help in relieving the anxiety due separation from a significant other. C. and C. Anxiety in school phobia is not due to being in school but due to separation from parents/caregivers so these interventions are not applicable. D. This will not help the child overcome the fear
20. A 10 year old child has very limited vocabulary and interaction skills. She has an I.Q. of 45. She is diagnosed to have Mental retardation of this classification:
A. Profound
B. Mild
C. Moderate
D. Severe

Answer: (C) Moderate
The child with moderate mental retardation has an I.Q. of 35-50 Profound Mental retardation has an I.Q. of below 20; Mild mental retardation 50-70 and Severe mental retardation has an I.Q. of 20-35.