iNeedSell.com: Free online ads. Post your Ad here.

Sep 4, 2008

December 2006 NP3 Nursing Board Exam Answer Key

SET A Seat No.____

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

NURSING PRACTICE 3A:

NURSING CARE OF CLIENT WITH PHYSIOLOGICAL

AND PSYCHOSOCIAL ALTERATIONS

DIRECTION: Choose the letter of the BEST answer by shading the corresponding letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURE!

1. A group of nurses are studying the case of a 16-year old nursing student who was accused of frustrated homicide. Benny can determine their understanding of circumstantial evidence if they can identify which of the following in the case?

a. justifying circumstances c. exempting circumstances

b. aggravating circumstances d. mitigating circumstances

2. E.M. is a 30-year old premenopausal female who is asking the nurse the most appropriate time of the month to do her self-examination of the breast. The MOST appropriate reply by the nurse would be:

a. the 26th day of the menstrual cycle

b. 7 to 8 days after conclusion of the menstrual period

c. during her menstruation

d. the same day each month

3. Copies of certain portions of the chart maybe released at the discretion of the hospital but may be limited to:

a. x-ray result, treatment orders, and surgery technique

b. laboratory results and abstract only

c. laboratory results, OR reports and patient’s abstract

d. OR reports, laboratory results, nurse’s notes

4. Jenny is reading the progress notes of her patient and reads that the physician had documented “insensible fluid loss of approximately 800 ml daily.” She understands that this type of fluid loss can occur through:

a. urinary output c. the skin

b. the gastrointestinal part d. wound drainage

5. Communication can be verbal and non-verbal. Examples of non-verbal communication in patient-nurse relationship are the following EXCEPT:

a. signs c. symptoms

b. restlessness d. using an interpreter like a family member

6. The perioperative nurse assumes responsibility and accountability for nursing judgments and actions exemplified by the following, EXCEPT:

a. accepting on-call assignment

b. accepting committee assignment

c. selecting a.m. shift only

d. maintaining basic nursing procedure

7. What one condition besetting the nursing service prevents the use of team approach?

a. fast turn-around of nurses c. understaffing

b. no administrative support d. politics in the nursing department

8. Fe, a nurse at the PACU discovered that Luisa, 50 kilos who is 3 hours post cholecystectomy was in severe pain. Upon checking the chart, she found out that Luisa had “Demerol 100 mg I.M. prn for pain”. What should Fe do?

a. verify the order from the M.D.

b. inject 100 mg. Demerol I.M. to Luisa

c. report to the nurse supervisor for opinion

d. administer the recommended dose which is 50 mg because Luisa weighs 50 kilos

9. Postoperatively, the nurse teaches the patient with a modified radical mastectomy to prevent lymphedema by:

a. avoiding unnecessary trauma (e.g. Venipuncture, BP) to the arm on the operative side

b. using a sling to keep arm flexed at the side

c. exposing the arm to sunlight to increase circulation

d. wrapping the arm with elastic bandages during the night

10. Ms. De Leon is suffering from Bell’s palsy as indicated by a feeling of stiffness and a drawing sensation of the face. In teaching her about the disease, what would be important to tell her?

a. There may be increased sensitivity to sound

b. There is a heightened awareness of taste, so that foods must be bland

c. The eye is susceptible to injury if the eyelid does not close

d. Drooling from an increase of saliva on the affected side may occur

11. The patient is scheduled for adrenalectomy. In the preoperative period, the priority nursing action would be to monitor:

a. urine for glucose and acetone

b. vital signs

c. intake and output

d. blood urea nitrogen results

12. Virtue ethics gives us a special prospective in the parent’s role to decide for their children including decision of:

a. professional choice of children

b. spouse choice for children

c. life and death prior to conception and birth

d. gender choice for children

13. One of the reasons why behavior in the OR is so tightly controlled is:

a. it is hard to move around in a OR gown

b. the door of OR suite are closed

c. everybody is busy doing their operation

d. to prevent the cross-contamination of infection between OR staff and patient

14. One of the hidden dangers in the OR is missing instruments. What is the appropriate approach to this happening?

a. correct labeling

b. “a place for everything and everything in its place”

c. install a flush sterilizer in the OR

d. increase instrument inventory

15. Ms. W.O. is found on the floor of her room. She fell while crawling over the side rails of her bed. She is unconscious and has a large laceration to the head that is bleeding profusely. The nurse’s priority action would be:

a. apply direct pressure to the laceration to her head

b. ensure the patient has an open airway

c. notify the physician

d. check the patient’s vital signs

16. During admission of a patient with a severe head injury to the emergency department, the nurse places the highest priority on assessment for:

a. presence of a neck injury

b. neurological status with the Glasgow Coma Scale

c. cerebrospinal fluid leakage from ears or nose

d. patency of airway

17. In the hospital, the best indicator of quality is:

a. patients recover but spend more on supplies

b. patients come back with referral like their family and friends

c. patients demand more use of technology

d. patients come back of their doctor’s advice

18. A most critical strategy in nursing communication is:

a. non-verbal communication

b. giving stereotyped comments

c. verbal communication

d. active listening

19. Mr. T.O. has undergone surgery for lyses of adhesions. He is transferred from Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU) to the Surgical floor, the nurse should obtain blood pressure, pulse and respiration every:

a. 3 minutes c. 15 minutes

b. 30 minutes d. 20 minutes

20. Mr. K, age 13, is diagnosed with chronic bronchitis. He is very dyspneic and must sit up to breath. An abnormal condition in which there is discomfort in breathing in any bed or sitting position is:

a. Cheyne-stokes c. eupnea

b. orthopnea d. dyspnea

21. The nurse recognizes that the MOST common causative organism in pyelonephritis is:

a. E.Coli c. Candida Albicans

b. Klebsiella d. Pseudomonas

22. There is a global concern on AIDS. There are legal and ethical concerns specially:

a. duty siblings and spouse

b. need for universal testing

c. confidentiality

d. public support and understanding

23. Mr. WT is cleaning the garage and splashes a chemical to his eyes. The initial priority care following the chemical burn is to:

a. irrigate with normal saline for 1 to 15 minutes

b. transport to a physician immediately

c. irrigate with water for 15 minutes or longer

d. cover the eyes with a sterile gauze

24. Licensed nurses from foreign countries can practice nursing in the Philippines in the following condition:

a. employed in state colleges and universities

b. special projects with hospitals with a fixed fee

c. employees by private hospitals

d. medical mission whose services are free

25. A patient diagnosed with breast cancer has been offered the treatment choices of breast conservation surgery with radiation or a modified radical mastectomy. When questioned by the patient about these options, the nurse informs the patient that the lumpectomy with radiation:

a. reduces the fear and anxiety that accompany the diagnosis and treatment of cancer

b. has about the same 10-year survival rate as the modified radical mastectomy

c. provides a shorter treatment period with a fewer long term complications

d. preserves the normal appearance and sensitivity of the breast.

26. Following a fracture of the forearm or tibia, complaints of sharp, deep, unrelenting pain in the hand or foot unrelieved by analgesics or elevation of the extremity indicate which complication?

a. cast syndrome b. compartment syndrome c. gangrene d. fat embolism

27. Another worthy study is the compliance to the principles of aseptic technique among the sterile OR team. Who does NOT belong to the sterile OR team?

a. scrub nurse c. x-ray technician

b. assistant surgeon d. surgeon

28. Circulation must be restored within 4 minutes of cardiopulmonary arrest because:

a. the lungs fill with fluid

b. the blood begins to coagulate

c. brain cells begin to die

d. irreversible kidney failure develops

29. Benny elaborated on the concept of informed consent. He determines that the nurses need more explanation if their response is one of the following:

a. the consent should provide a description of alternative treatments or procedures

b. the consent should offer a thorough explanation of the procedures to be done and the consequences of it.

c. the consent should include the medical diagnosis and explanation of the patient’s condition

d. the consent should describe the prognosis if the recommended care is refused.

30. Which of the assessment findings would indicate a need for possible glaucoma testing?

a. intermittent loss of vision c. halos around lights

b. presence of floaters d. pruritus and erythema of the conjunctiva

31. The diabetic patient asks for a snack and something to drink. The MOST appropriate choice for this client to meet nutritional needs would be which of the following:

a. crackers with cheese and tea

b. toast with peanut butter and cocoa

c. vanilla wafers and coffee with cream

d. graham crackers and warm milk

32. The patient demonstrates knowledge of the psychological response to the operation and other invasive procedure when she asks about:

a. Who will be with me in the OR?

b. How is the post operative pain over the site like?

c. Will I be naked during the operation?

d. Is it cold inside the

33. In teaching the mother the proper administration of tetracycline eye ointment, which of the following is MOST crucial?

a. squirt a small amount on the inside of the infected eye’s lower lid

b. use clean, wet cloth to gently wipe away the pus

c. wash hands before medication administration

d. do not use other eye ointments or drops or put anything else in eyes.

34. The primary goal of nursing interventions after a craniotomy is:

a. avoiding need for secondary surgery

b. ensuring patient comfort

c. preventing increased intracranial pressure

d. prevention of infection

35. Mr. Salvo, a 35 year old male, has been admitted with the diagnosis of peptic ulcers. The nurse recognizes which drugs as those MOST commonly used in these patients to decrease acid secretions?

a. erythromycin and flagyl

b. Tagamet and zantac

c. Maalox and kayexalate

d. Dyazide and carafate

36. When reading the urinalysis report, the nurse recognizes this result as abnormal:

a. red blood cells 15-20 c. glucose negative

b. turbid d. ph 6.0

37. Mr. Hizon has had cataract surgery. Discharge teaching would include:

a. wearing eye patches for the first 72 hours

b. bending at the waist acceptable if done slowly

c. bending at the knees and keeping the head straight

d. lifting light objects is acceptable

38. Endoscopic minimally invasive surgery has evolved from diagnostic modality to a widespread surgical technique. What department should the nurse collaborate which is unusual in conventional surgery?

a. engineering department c. blood bank services

b. x-ray department d. linen section

39. When the client is discharged from the hospital and is not capable of doing the needed care services, the following can assume the role, EXCEPT:

a. family members c. significant others

b. chaplain d. responsible caregiver

40. R.N. denotes that a nurse:

a. has satisfactorily completed with the requirements to practice nursing as set by the state.

b. has a baccalaureate degree in nursing

c. is professionally ready to practice nursing

d. just a title

41. Urinary tract infection is the most common site of nosocomial infection particularly with urinary catheterization. It can be reduced significantly by through:

a. intermittent drainage c. hanging system drainage

b. open system drainage d. closed system drainage

42. The professional license of an RN is:

a. transferable c. can be revoked for reasons stipulated in RA 9173

b. lifetime d. personal

43. In medical and nursing practice, code means a call for:

a. DNR state c. clinical case

b. call to order d. cardiopulmonary resuscitation

44. A thumb mark of a comatose patient in the informed consent is considered:

a. a misrepresentation c. a not valid signature

b. “nothing” d. a valid signature

45. The OR team collaborates from the first to the last surgical procedure. Who monitors the activities of each OR suite?

a. scrub nurse c. circulating nurse

b. anesthesiologist d. surgeon

46. Organ donation to save life was initially with the first transplant done by:

a. Dr. Christian Barnard of the Union of South Africa

b. Dr. Christian of the U.S.A.

c. Dr. Christian Barnard of Soviet Union

d. Dr. Christian Barnard of U.K.

47. Ms. C.O., age 45, is being evaluated to rule out pulmonary tuberculosis. Which finding is MOST closely associated with TB?

a. green-colored sputum c. leg cramps

b. night sweats d. skin discoloration

48. Following a renal angiography, the patient assessment priority is the:

a. respiratory effort c. urinary output

b. blood pressure d. puncture site

49. In patients with acute pancreatitis, the administration of the analgesic morphine may cause:

a. addiction c. paralytic ileus

b. urinary retention d. spasms of the sphincter of Oddi

50. Who is responsible in daily monitoring the standards of safe, nursing practice in the operating suite?

a. surgeon c. OR nurse supervisor

b. perioperative nurse d. chief nurse

51. Cathy is giving bed bath to an assigned client. A nursing aide enters the patient’s room and informs her that another patient is in pain needs pain medication. The appropriate action of Cathy is:

a. ask the nursing aide to continue the bed bath after asking the permission of the patient so Cathy can attend to the other client

b. Cover the client, raise side rails, tell the client that Cathy has to administer the pain medication first, then will return as soon as possible

c. finish the bed bath, then administer the pain medication

d. ask the nursing aide to stay with the other client while Cathy finishes the bed bath

52. Which of the following health teachings by the nurse will be MOST appropriate in home medication administration?

a. determine the appropriate drug and dosage for the child’s age or weight

b. ask the mother to give the first dose of the drug to her child

c. demonstrate to the mother how to measure a dose

d. tell the mother the reason for giving the drug to the child

53. The patient’s medical record is the best evidence of the care that is given to the patient. It is the property of:

a. the patient owns the record

b. the physical property of the hospital

c. the health team property

d. the doctor owns the record

54. Edna classified the patient as having diarrhea with severe dehydration. Which of the following interventions would the nurse employ?

a. advise the mother regarding follow-up after 5 days

b. give a tetracycline tablet

c. refer urgently to the nearest hospital

d. give vitamin A

55. A physician has prescribed propylthiouracil for a client with hyperthyroidism. A nurse develops a plan of care for the client. A priority nursing assessment to be included in the plan regarding this medication is to assess for:

a. signs of renal toxicity

b. signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia

c. relief of pain

d. signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism

56. An external insulin pump is prescribed for a client with with diabetes mellitus. The client asks Eddie about the function of the pump. He bases the response on the information that the pump:

a. is surgically attached to the pancreas and infuses regular insulin into the pancreas, which in turn releases the insulin into the bloodstream.

b. is timed to release programmed doses of regular or NPH insulin into the bloodstream at specific intervals

c. continuously infuses small amounts of NPH insulin into the bloodstream while regularly monitoring blood glucose levels

d. gives a small continuous dose of regular insulin, and the client can self-bolus with an additional dosage from the pump prior to each meal.

57. In evaluating the care of Ms. O.P., a young female executive admitted with bleeding peptic ulcer, the nurse focuses on nursing interventions. A nursing intervention associated with this type of patient is:

a. frequently monitoring arterial blood levels

b. checking the patient’s low residue diet.

c. checking the blood pressure and pulse rates each shift

d. observing vomitus for color, consistency, and volume

58. During surgery, movement of personnel should be:

a. kept to a minimum c. monitored

b. restricted d. eliminated when possible

59. Ms. Dee is a 27-year-old housewife and mother of two children. She is being seen by the nurse at the health maintenance organization for signs of fatigue. She has the history of iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following data from the nursing history indicates that the anemia is NOT currently managed effectively?

a. pallor c. monitored

b. poor skin turgor d. respirations 18 and regular

60. Which of the following would be MOST effective in promoting adequate respiratory function in an unconscious client recently admitted to the PACU with no contraindications to movement?

a. extending client’s chin while on his side and pillow at the back

b. turning the client from side to side at 10-minute interval

c. placing the client prone to facilitate drainage of secretions

d. performing jaw thrust maneuver while client is supine

61. The patient has a right to information regarding the operation or other invasive procedure and potential effects. This right is achieved through:

a. informed consent c. charting

b. preoperative visit d. doctor’s rounds

62. Which statement about a person’s character is evident in the OR team?

a. it assists in the control of feelings, thoughts and emotions in the face of difficulty

b. it reflects the moral values and beliefs that are used as guides to personal behavior and actions

c. it encourages the constructive use of the pleasure of the senses

d. it refers to the quality of being righteous, correct, fair and impartial

63. Mrs. XP underwent D and C for dysfunctional bleeding. What is inserted vaginally to prevent postoperative bleeding?

a. perineal pad c. vaginal suppository

b. vaginal packing d. gelfoam

64. Reusable supplies/instruments are still widely used in the Philippine OR setting. A clear advantage of single-use items is:

a. transmission of infection during processing is avoided

b. convenience

c. guaranteed first class quality

d. integrity and functionality is assured.

65. It is important to teach the patient the warning signs for skin cancer. Which of the following is a warning sign of cancer?

a. smooth surface c. border irregularity

b. decreasing diameter d. mole symmetry

66. In teaching the patient with Parkinson’s disease, which response would indicate the need for further education?

a. “I should eat a diet high in fiber and roughage to decrease my constipation.”

b. “I need to be sitting straight up and my chin slightly tucked so I won’t choke when I eat or drink.”

c. “I need to exercise at least some everyday.”

d. “If I miss an occasional dose of the medication, it is not of much significance.”

67. It is MOST important to assess the adolescent with acne for:

a. change in weight c. suicide tendencies

b. low self esteem d. increase intake of fatty foods

68. Communication can take many forms. Each has its own limitations. Which is a deterrent factor in written communications?

a. e-mail c. suicide tendencies

b. fax d. use of non-universal abbreviation

69. Monica shared with the interviewer her most recent experiences about a restless pediatric patient whom she puts up the side rails of the bed to prevent accidental falls. Which of the following attributes is shown by Monica?

a. resourcefulness c. honesty

b. prudence d. reliability

70. As experimental research designs have their strengths, so does non-experimental researches. Which of the following statements is NOT one of the strengths of non-experimental designs?

a. can be completed in a short span of time

b. less expensive

c. useful for predictive purposes

d. easier to gain cooperation of study subjects

71. Mr. E.O. age 52 had a laryngectomy due to cancer of the larynx. Discharge instructions are given to Mr.F.O. and his family. Which response by written communication from Mr. F.O. or verbal response from the family, will be a signal to the nurse that the instructions need to be reclarified?

a. it is acceptable to take over-the-counter medications now that condition is stable

b. the suctioning at home must be a clean procedure, not sterile.

c. report swelling, pain or excessive drainage

d. cleans skin around stoma BID, use hydrogen peroxide and rinse with water, pat dry.

72. Dr. Tuazon scheduled Mrs. Poe for a right breast mass incision with frozen section and possible mastectomy on Monday, first case. As the nurse in-charge for scheduling you will collaborate with the following departments EXCEPT:

a. pathology c. anesthesia

b. dietary d. surgery

73. Charting should be legible and include only standard abbreviations. Which of the following is NOT a standard abbreviation?

a. PRN c. NNO

b. OD d. NPO

74. A mother who is pregnant and has ovarian cancer has to undergo surgery to treat the cancer. In the process the fetus died. The doctrine that justifies the death of the fetus is:

a. justice c. exception to the role

b. anatomy d. double effect

75. A nurse is waiting for a report to be sent by fax. The machine activates but instead of the report, the nurse received a sexually oriented photograph. The MOST appropriate nursing action is to:

a. call the nursing supervisor and report the incident

b. cut the photograph and throw it away.

c. call the police

d. call the unit who sent it and ask for the name of person who sent the photograph

76. Ms. F.X.. has been admitted with right upper quadrant pain and has been placed on a low fat diet. Which of the following trays would be acceptable for her?

a. liver, fried potatoes and avocado

b. whole milk, rice and pastry

c. ham, mashed potatoes, cream peas

d. skim milk, lean fish, tapioca pudding

77. Negligence in the practice of nursing can be a ground for:

a. revocation of license by the Ombudsman

b. revocation of license by the BON

c. revocation of license by the DOH

d. revocation of license by the Nursing Department

78. One way of verifying that the right message/doctor’s order was communicated effectively is by:

a. phrasing intelligently

b. repeating the order message

c. documenting

d. speaking distinctly using enough volume

79. Kelly identified five categories of followers in an organization: sheep, yes people, alienated, survivor and effective followers. If we choose to be successful nursing professionals, we have to become one these and influence other:

a. “YES” people c. effective followers

b. alienated d. sheep

80. A research on “Surgical Instrument Availability” will help the surgical team:

a. restructure OR scheduling system

b. streamline instrument inventory

c. improve instrument decontamination

d. ensure efficient completion of surgical instrument

81. Maria is administering a cleansing enema to a patient with fecal impaction. Before administering the enema, she should place the patient in which of the following positions?

a. on the right side of the body with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees

b. left Sim’s position

c. on the left side of the body with the head of the bed elevated 45 degree

d. right Sim’s position

82. The functionality and integrity of instruments and medical devices used in surgical procedure, is the responsibility of the:

a. surgeon c. OR nurse

b. bio-med technician d. scrub nurse

83. Maria will be preparing a patient for thoracentesis. She should assist the patient to which of the following positions for the procedure?

a. prone with the head turned to the side and supported by a pillow

b. lying in bed on the affected side with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees

c. Sim’s position with the head of the bed flat

d. Lying in bed on the unaffected side with the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees

84. When a patient comes to the clinic for an eye examination, the ophthalmologists administers phenylephrine 2.5% drops to:

a. dilate retinal blood vessels

b. anesthetize the cornea

c. dilate the pupil

d. removed any obstruction on the cornea

85. Which of the following statements by Ms. S.O. a chemotherapy patient with a low WBC count, a low platelet count and a hemoglobin measurement of 5.6 g would indicate the need for further teaching?

a. “My lips are dry an d cracking. I need some lubricant”

b. “My husband and I have been using vaginal lubrication before my intercourse”

c. “I check my mouth and teeth after each meal”

d. “I’ve been very constipated and need an enema”

86. Patients undergoing surgery display different levels of anxiety. This is researchable. At present, it has been found out that music can decreases anxiety. What other factors can reduce anxiety that is currently done among postoperative cases?

a. pre-anesthetic drugs c. shower prior to surgery

b. pre-operative visit d. presence of any members of the family

87. According to AORN recommended practices, surgical attire intended only for use within the surgical suite should be worn within the:

a. restricted semi-restricted and unrestricted areas

b. restricted area only

c. operating room only

d. restricted and semi-restricted areas

88. A heavily researched topic in infection control is about the single most important procedure for preventing hospital-acquired infections. What is this procedure called?

a. handwashing c. use of facemask

b. use of scrub suite d. brain washing

89. Surgical instruments are expensive and are a lifetime investment of the O.R. To ensure quality of these instruments, which criterion is evaluated?

a. shelf life c. cost

b. reusability d. integrity and functionality after each use and processing

90. Mr. Que, 61 years of age is suffering from rheumatoid arthritis. He asks if there is a cure for RA. The MOST appropriate response is:

a. “No, most patients with RA also develop osteoarthritis.”

b. “Yes, but the patient must take medication for at least 10 years.”

c. “Yes, new drugs being developed offer a cure.”

d. “No, but new drugs being developed can interfere with the body’s reaction to inflammation and better control the disease process.”

91. Rita is assigned to care for group of patients. On review of the patient’s medical record, she determines that which patient is at risk for fluid volume deficit?

a. A client with CHF

b. A client receiving frequent wound irrigations

c. A client with colostomy

d. A client with decreased kidney function

92. In providing general information and assessing the patients level of interest or reaction to surgery, which of the following nursing intervention will received priority?

a. tell the patient when the surgery is scheduled

b. let the patient know that the family will be kept in formed

c. explain details of perioperative preparation with a tour and viewing of area and equipments

d. offer general information about the surgery

93. In the event of a fire, OR staff are instructed to follow the international RACE. What does R stand for?

a. Rest b. Rescue c. respond d. run

94. In preparing the patient for endoscopic examinations of the upper GI tract, the patient’s pharynx is anesthesized with Xylocaine spray. Nursing interventions for post-endoscopic examination include:

a. keeping patient NPO until gag reflex returns

b. prohibiting smoking before the test

c. withholding anticholinergic medications

d. allowing fluids up to 4 hours before examination

95. Modern medicine has divided the human body into different systems/organs or the so called “specialty medicine practice”. Collaboration of the specialists will in effect treat the client as:

a. multiple specialty c. one whole human being

b. multi-organ d. compartmentalized body

96. Discharge teaching for the client with hypoparathyroidism should include which of the following instructions:

a. use OTC vitamin D preparation

b. avoid strenuous ex ercises

c. supplement calcium intake

d. avoid diuretics to minimize calcium loss

97. An important nursing intervention goal to establish for Mang Carlos who has iron-deficiency anemia is:

a. alternate periods of rest and activity to balance oxygen supply and demand

b. increase fluids to stimulate erythropoises

c. decrease fluids to prevent sickling of RBC’s

d. use birth control to avoid pregnancy

98. KN is monitoring the status of a postoperative patient. He would become MOST concerned with which of the following signs which could indicate an evolving complication?

a. a negative Homan’s sign

b. BP of 110/170 mmHg and a pulse of 80 beats per minute

c. increasing restlessness

d. hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants

99. The Patient’s Bill of rights helps practitioners provide more effective patient care. Which of the following should NOT be included in the list?

a. be informed of administrative and policies and practices

b. considerate and respectful ca re

c. confidentiality of communications and records

d. relevant current and understandable information concerning diagnosis, treatment diagnosis, specific procedures treatment and risks involved.

100. Disposal of medical records in government hospitals/institutions must be done in close coordination with what agency?

a. DOH

b. Records Management and Archives Office (RMAO)

c. DILG

d. MMDA

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Feb 27, 2008

NLE Review Materials

Blood Tranfusion
Community Health Nursing (CHN)
Fundamentals of Nursing I
Fundamentals of Nursing II
Fundamentals of Nursing III
Fundamentals of Nursing IV
Nursing Skills Computation
Medical Surgical Nursing 1-30
Medical Surgical Nursing 31-60
Medical Surgical Nursing 61-90
Medical Surgical Nursing 91-120
Medical Surgical Nursing 121-150
Medical Surgical Nursing 151 - 175
Maternity Nursing
Psychiatric Nursing 1-20
Psychiatric Nursing 21-40
Psychiatric Nursing 41-60
Psychiatric Nursing 61-80
Psychiatric Nursing 81-100

PSYCHIATRIC NURSING (1 - 20 )

1. Mental health is defined as:
A. The ability to distinguish what is real from what is not.
B. A state of well-being where a person can realize his own abilities can cope with normal stresses of life and work productively.
C. Is the promotion of mental health, prevention of mental disorders, nursing care of patients during illness and rehabilitation
D. Absence of mental illness

Answer: (B) A state of well-being where a person can realize his own abilities can cope with normal stresses of life and work productively.
Mental health is a state of emotional and psychosocial well being. A mentally healthy individual is self aware and self directive, has the ability to solve problems, can cope with crisis without assistance beyond the support of family and friends fulfill the capacity to love and work and sets goals and realistic limits. A. This describes the ego function reality testing. C. This is the definition of Mental Health and Psychiatric Nursing. D. Mental health is not just the absence of mental illness.
2. Which of the following describes the role of a technician?
A. Administers medications to a schizophrenic patient.
B. The nurse feeds and bathes a catatonic client
C. Coordinates diverse aspects of care rendered to the patient
D. Disseminates information about alcohol and its effects.

Answer: (A) Administers medications to a schizophrenic patient.
Administration of medications and treatments, assessment, documentation are the activities of the nurse as a technician. B. Activities as a parent surrogate. C. Refers to the ward manager role. D. Role as a teacher.
3. Liza says, “Give me 10 minutes to recall the name of our college professor who failed many students in our anatomy class.” She is operating on her:
A. Subconscious
B. Conscious
C. Unconscious
D. Ego

Answer: (A) Subconscious
Subconscious refers to the materials that are partly remembered partly forgotten but these can be recalled spontaneously and voluntarily. B. This functions when one is awake. One is aware of his thoughts, feelings actions and what is going on in the environment. C. The largest potion of the mind that contains the memories of one’s past particularly the unpleasant. It is difficult to recall the unconscious content. D. The conscious self that deals and tests reality.
4. The superego is that part of the psyche that:
A. Uses defensive function for protection.
B. Is impulsive and without morals.
C. Determines the circumstances before making decisions.
D. The censoring portion of the mind.

Answer: (D) The censoring portion of the mind.
The critical censoring portion of one’s personality; the conscience. A. This refers to the ego function that protects itself from anything that threatens it.. B. The Id is composed of the untamed, primitive drives and impulses. C. This refers to the ego that acts as the moderator of the struggle between the id and the superego.
5. Primary level of prevention is exemplified by:
A. Helping the client resume self care.
B. Ensuring the safety of a suicidal client in the institution.
C. Teaching the client stress management techniques
D. Case finding and surveillance in the community

Answer: (C) Teaching the client stress management techniques
Primary level of prevention refers to the promotion of mental health and prevention of mental illness. This can be achieved by rendering health teachings such as modifying ones responses to stress. A. This is tertiary level of prevention that deals with rehabilitation. B and D. Secondary level of prevention which involves reduction of actual illness through early detection and treatment of illness.
6. Situation: In a home visit done by the nurse, she suspects that the wife and her child are victims of abuse.

Which of the following is the most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
A. “Are you being threatened or hurt by your partner?
B. “Are you frightened of you partner”
C. “Is something bothering you?”
D. “What happens when you and your partner argue?”

Answer: (A) “Are you being threatened or hurt by your partner?
The nurse validates her observation by asking simple, direct question. This also shows empathy. B, C, and D are indirect questions which may not lead to the discussion of abuse.
7. The wife admits that she is a victim of abuse and opens up about her persistent distaste for sex. This sexual disorder is:
A. Sexual desire disorder
B. Sexual arousal Disorder
C. Orgasm Disorder
D. Sexual Pain Disorder

Answer: (A) Sexual desire disorder
Has little or no sexual desire or has distaste for sex. B. Failure to maintain the physiologic requirements for sexual intercourse. C. Persistent and recurrent inability to achieve an orgasm. D. Also called dyspareunia. Individuals with this disorder suffer genital pain before, during and after sexual intercourse.
8. What would be the best approach for a wife who is still living with her abusive husband?
A. “Here’s the number of a crisis center that you can call for help .”
B. “Its best to leave your husband.”
C. “Did you discuss this with your family?”
D. “ Why do you allow yourself to be treated this way”

Answer: (A) “Here’s the number of a crisis center that you can call for help .”
Protection is a priority concern in abuse. Help the victim to develop a plan to ensure safety. B. Do not give advice to leave the abuser. Making decisions for the victim further erodes her esteem. However discuss options available. C. The victim tends to isolate from friends and family. D. This is judgmental. Avoid in anyway implying that she is at fault.
9. Which comment about a 3 year old child if made by the parent may indicate child abuse?
A. “Once my child is toilet trained, I can still expect her to have some"
B. “When I tell my child to do something once, I don’t expect to have to tell"
C. “My child is expected to try to do things such as, dress and feed.”
D. “My 3 year old loves to say NO.”

Answer: (B) “When I tell my child to do something once, I don’t expect to have to tell"
Abusive parents tend to have unrealistic expectations on the child. A,B and C are realistic expectations on a 3 year old.
10. The primary nursing intervention for a victim of child abuse is:
A. Assess the scope of the problem
B. Analyze the family dynamics
C. Ensure the safety of the victim
D. Teach the victim coping skills

Answer: (C) Ensure the safety of the victim
The priority consideration is the safety of the victim. Attend to the physical injuries to ensure the physiologic safety and integrity of the child. Reporting suspected case of abuse may deter recurrence of abuse. A,B and D may be addressed later.
11. Situation: A 30 year old male employee frequently complains of low back pain that leads to frequent absences from work. Consultation and tests reveal negative results.

The client has which somatoform disorder?
A. Somatization Disorder
B. Hypochondriaisis
C. Conversion Disorder
D. Somatoform Pain Disorder

Answer: (D) Somatoform Pain Disorder
This is characterized by severe and prolonged pain that causes significant distress. A. This is a chronic syndrome of somatic symptoms that cannot be explained medically and is associated with psychosocial distress. B. This is an unrealistic preoccupation with a fear of having a serious illness. C. Characterized by alteration or loss in sensory or motor function resulting from a psychological conflict.
12. Freud explains anxiety as:
A. Strives to gratify the needs for satisfaction and security
B. Conflict between id and superego
C. A hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal reaction to stress
D. A conditioned response to stressors

Answer: (B) Conflict between id and superego
Freud explains anxiety as due to opposing action drives between the id and the superego. A. Sullivan identified 2 types of needs, satisfaction and security. Failure to gratify these needs may result in anxiety. C. Biomedical perspective of anxiety. D. Explanation of anxiety using the behavioral model.
13. The following are appropriate nursing diagnosis for the client EXCEPT:
A. Ineffective individual coping
B. Alteration in comfort, pain
C. Altered role performance
D. Impaired social interaction

Answer: (D) Impaired social interaction
The client may not have difficulty in social exchange. The cues do not support this diagnosis. A. The client maladaptively uses body symptoms to manage anxiety. B. The client will have discomfort due to pain. C. The client may fail to meet environmental expectations due to pain.
14. The following statements describe somatoform disorders:
A. Physical symptoms are explained by organic causes
B. It is a voluntary expression of psychological conflicts
C. Expression of conflicts through bodily symptoms
D. Management entails a specific medical treatment

Answer: (C) Expression of conflicts through bodily symptoms
Bodily symptoms are used to handle conflicts. A. Manifestations do not have an organic basis. B. This occurs unconsciously. D. Medical treatment is not used because the disorder does not have a structural or organic basis.
15. What would be the best response to the client’s repeated complaints of pain:
A. “I know the feeling is real tests revealed negative results.”
B. . “I think you’re exaggerating things a little bit.”
C. “Try to forget this feeling and have activities to take it off your mind”
D. “So tell me more about the pain”

Answer: (A) “I know the feeling is real tests revealed negative results.”
Shows empathy and offers information. B. This is a demeaning statement. C. This belittles the client’s feelings. D. Giving undue attention to the physical symptom reinforces the complaint.
16. Situation: A nurse may encounter children with mental disorders. Her knowledge of these various disorders is vital.

When planning school interventions for a child with a diagnosis of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, a guide to remember is to:
A. provide as much structure as possible for the child
B. ignore the child’s overactivity.
C. encourage the child to engage in any play activity to dissipate energy
D. remove the child from the classroom when disruptive behavior occurs

Answer: (A) provide as much structure as possible for the child
Decrease stimuli for behavior control thru an environment that is free of distractions, a calm non –confrontational approach and setting limit to time allotted for activities. B. The child will not benefit from a lenient approach. C. Dissipate energy through safe activities. D. This indicates that the classroom environment lacks structure.
17. The child with conduct disorder will likely demonstrate:
A. Easy distractibility to external stimuli.
B. Ritualistic behaviors
C. Preference for inanimate objects.
D. Serious violations of age related norms.

Answer: (D) Serious violations of age related norms.
This is a disruptive disorder among children characterized by more serious violations of social standards such as aggression, vandalism, stealing, lying and truancy. A. This is characteristic of attention deficit disorder. B and C. These are noted among children with autistic disorder.
18. Ritalin is the drug of choice for chidren with ADHD. The side effects of the following may be noted:
A. increased attention span and concentration
B. increase in appetite
C. sleepiness and lethargy
D. bradycardia and diarrhea

Answer: (A) increased attention span and concentration
The medication has a paradoxic effect that decrease hyperactivity and impulsivity among children with ADHD. B, C, D. Side effects of Ritalin include anorexia, insomnia, diarrhea and irritability.
19. School phobia is usually treated by:
A. Returning the child to the school immediately with family support.
B. Calmly explaining why attendance in school is necessary
C. Allowing the child to enter the school before the other children
D. Allowing the parent to accompany the child in the classroom

Answer: (A) Returning the child to the school immediately with family support.
Exposure to the feared situation can help in overcoming anxiety. A. This will not help in relieving the anxiety due separation from a significant other. C. and C. Anxiety in school phobia is not due to being in school but due to separation from parents/caregivers so these interventions are not applicable. D. This will not help the child overcome the fear
20. A 10 year old child has very limited vocabulary and interaction skills. She has an I.Q. of 45. She is diagnosed to have Mental retardation of this classification:
A. Profound
B. Mild
C. Moderate
D. Severe

Answer: (C) Moderate
The child with moderate mental retardation has an I.Q. of 35-50 Profound Mental retardation has an I.Q. of below 20; Mild mental retardation 50-70 and Severe mental retardation has an I.Q. of 20-35.