100 Item Exam On Fundamentals Of Nursing : Nursing Process, Physical and Health Assessment and Routine Procedures
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST IV
Content Outline
1. The nursing process
2. Physical Assessment
3. Health Assessment
3.a Temperature
3.b Pulse
3.c Respiration
3.d Blood pressure
4. Routine Procedures
4.a Urinalysis specimen collection
4.b Sputum specimen collection
4.c Urine examination
4.d Positioning pre-procedure
4.e Stool specimen collection
1. She is the first one to coin the term “NURSING PROCESS” She introduced 3 steps of nursing process which are Observation, Ministration and Validation.
A. Nightingale
B. Johnson
C. Rogers
D. Hall
2. The American Nurses association formulated an innovation of the Nursing process. Today, how many distinct steps are there in the nursing process?
A. APIE – 4
B. ADPIE – 5
C. ADOPIE – 6
D. ADOPIER – 7
3. They are the first one to suggest a 4 step nursing process which are : APIE , or assessment, planning, implementation and evaluation.
1. Yura
2. Walsh
3. Roy
4. Knowles
A. 1,2
B. 1,3
C. 3,4
D. 2,3
4. Which characteristic of nursing process is responsible for proper utilization of human resources, time and cost resources?
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
5. Which characteristic of nursing process addresses the INDIVIDUALIZED care a client must receive?
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
6. A characteristic of the nursing process that is essential to promote client satisfaction and progress. The care should also be relevant with the client’s needs.
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
7. Rhina, who has Menieres disease, said that her environment is moving. Which of the following is a valid assessment?
1. Rhina is giving an objective data
2. Rhina is giving a subjective data
3. The source of the data is primary
4. The source of the data is secondary
A. 1,3
B. 2,3
C. 2.4
D. 1,4
8. Nurse Angela, observe Joel who is very apprehensive over the impending operation. The client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis and asks lots of questions. Angela made a diagnosis of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE PROCEDURE. This is what type of Nursing Diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
9. Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado, who have undergone a BKA. Her diagnosis is SELF ESTEEM DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN BODY IMAGE. Although the client has not yet seen her lost leg, Angela already anticipated the diagnosis. This is what type of Diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
10. Nurse Angela is about to make a diagnosis but very unsure because the S/S the client is experiencing is not specific with her diagnosis of POWERLESSNESS R/T DIFFICULTY ACCEPTING LOSS OF LOVED ONE. She then focus on gathering data to refute or prove her diagnosis but her plans and interventions are already ongoing for the diagnosis. Which type of Diagnosis is this?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
11. Nurse Angela knew that Stephen Lee Mu Chin, has just undergone an operation with an incision near the diaphragm. She knew that this will contribute to some complications later on. She then should develop what type of Nursing diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
12. Which of the following Nursing diagnosis is INCORRECT?
A. Fluid volume deficit R/T Diarrhea
B. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side rails
C. Possible ineffective coping R/T Loss of loved one
D. Self esteem disturbance R/T Effects of surgical removal of the leg
13. Among the following statements, which should be given the HIGHEST priority?
A. Client is in extreme pain
B. Client’s blood pressure is 60/40
C. Client’s temperature is 40 deg. Centigrade
D. Client is cyanotic
14. Which of the following need is given a higher priority among others?
A. The client has attempted suicide and safety precaution is needed
B. The client has disturbance in his body image because of the recent operation
C. The client is depressed because her boyfriend left her all alone
D. The client is thirsty and dehydrated
15. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to Client Goals?
A. They are specific, measurable, attainable and time bounded
B. They are general and broadly stated
C. They should answer for WHO, WHAT ACTIONS, WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES, HOW WELL and WHEN.
D. Example is : After discharge planning, Client demonstrated the proper psychomotor skills for insulin injection.
16. Which of the following is a NOT a correct statement of an Outcome criteria?
A. Ambulates 30 feet with a cane before discharge
B. Discusses fears and concerns regarding the surgical procedure
C. Demonstrates proper coughing and breathing technique after a teaching session
D. Reestablishes a normal pattern of elimination
17. Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE data?
A. Dizziness
B. Chest pain
C. Anxiety
D. Blue nails
18. A patient’s chart is what type of data source?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Can be A and B
19. All of the following are characteristic of the Nursing process except
A. Dynamic
B. Cyclical
C. Universal
D. Intrapersonal
20. Which of the following is true about the NURSING CARE PLAN?
A. It is nursing centered
B. Rationales are supported by interventions
C. Verbal
D. Atleast 2 goals are needed for every nursing diagnosis
21. A framework for health assessment that evaluates the effects of stressors to the mind, body and environment in relation with the ability of the client to perform ADL.
A. Functional health framework
B. Head to toe framework
C. Body system framework
D. Cephalocaudal framework
22. Client has undergone Upper GI and Lower GI series. Which type of health assessment framework is used in this situation?
A. Functional health framework
B. Head to toe framework
C. Body system framework
D. Cephalocaudal framework
23. Which of the following statement is true regarding temperature?
A. Oral temperature is more accurate than rectal temperature
B. The bulb used in Rectal temperature reading is pear shaped or round
C. The older the person, the higher his BMR
D. When the client is swimming, BMR Decreases
24. A type of heat loss that occurs when the heat is dissipated by air current
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Evaporation
25. Which of the following is TRUE about temperature?
A. The highest temperature usually occurs later in a day, around 8 P.M to 12 M.N
B. The lowest temperature is usually in the Afternoon, Around 12 P.M
C. Thyroxin decreases body temperature
D. Elderly people are risk for hyperthermia due to the absence of fats, Decreased thermoregulatory control and sedentary lifestyle.
26. Hyperpyrexia is a condition in which the temperature is greater than
A. 40 degree Celsius
B. 39 degree Celsius
C. 100 degree Fahrenheit
D. 105.8 degree Fahrenheit
27. Tympanic temperature is taken from John, A client who was brought recently into the ER due to frequent barking cough. The temperature reads 37.9 Degrees Celsius. As a nurse, you conclude that this temperature is
A. High
B. Low
C. At the low end of the normal range
D. At the high end of the normal range
28. John has a fever of 38.5 Deg. Celsius. It surges at around 40 Degrees and go back to 38.5 degrees 6 times today in a typical pattern. What kind of fever is John having?
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant
29. John has a fever of 39.5 degrees 2 days ago, But yesterday, he has a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees. Today, his temperature surges to 40 degrees. What type of fever is John having?
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant
30. John’s temperature 10 hours ago is a normal 36.5 degrees. 4 hours ago, He has a fever with a temperature of 38.9 Degrees. Right now, his temperature is back to normal. Which of the following best describe the fever john is having?
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant
31. The characteristic fever in Dengue Virus is characterized as:
A. Tricyclic
B. Bicyclic
C. Biphasic
D. Triphasic
32. When John has been given paracetamol, his fever was brought down dramatically from 40 degrees Celsius to 36.7 degrees in a matter of 10 minutes. The nurse would assess this event as:
A. The goal of reducing john’s fever has been met with full satisfaction of the outcome criteria
B. The desired goal has been partially met
C. The goal is not completely met
D. The goal has been met but not with the desired outcome criteria
33. What can you expect from Marianne, who is currently at the ONSET stage of fever?
A. Hot, flushed skin
B. Increase thirst
C. Convulsion
D. Pale,cold skin
34. Marianne is now at the Defervescence stage of the fever, which of the following is expected?
A. Delirium
B. Goose flesh
C. Cyanotic nail beds
D. Sweating
35. Considered as the most accessible and convenient method for temperature taking
A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Tympanic
D. Axillary
36. Considered as Safest and most non invasive method of temperature taking
A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. Tympanic
D. Axillary
37. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication in taking ORAL temperature?
A. Quadriplegic
B. Presence of NGT
C. Dyspnea
D. Nausea and Vomitting
38. Which of the following is a contraindication in taking RECTAL temperature?
A. Unconscious
B. Neutropenic
C. NPO
D. Very young children
39. How long should the Rectal Thermometer be inserted to the clients anus?
A. 1 to 2 inches
B. .5 to 1.5 inches
C. 3 to 5 inches
D. 2 to 3 inches
40. In cleaning the thermometer after use, The direction of the cleaning to follow Medical Asepsis is :
A. From bulb to stem
B. From stem to bulb
C. From stem to stem
D. From bulb to bulb
41. How long should the thermometer stay in the Client’s Axilla?
A. 3 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 7 minutes
D. 10 minutes
42. Which of the following statement is TRUE about pulse?
A. Young person have higher pulse than older persons
B. Males have higher pulse rate than females after puberty
C. Digitalis has a positive chronotropic effect
D. In lying position, Pulse rate is higher
43. The following are correct actions when taking radial pulse except:
A. Put the palms downward
B. Use the thumb to palpate the artery
C. Use two or three fingers to palpate the pulse at the inner wrist
D. Assess the pulse rate, rhythm, volume and bilateral quality
44. The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure is termed as
A. Apical rate
B. Cardiac rate
C. Pulse deficit
D. Pulse pressure
45. Which of the following completely describes PULSUS PARADOXICUS?
A. A greater-than-normal increase in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
B. A greater-than-normal decrease in systolic blood pressure with inspiration
C. Pulse is paradoxically low when client is in standing position and high when supine.
D. Pulse is paradoxically high when client is in standing position and low when supine.
46. Which of the following is TRUE about respiration?
A. I:E 2:1
B. I:E : 4:3
C I:E 1:1
D. I:E 1:2
47. Contains the pneumotaxic and the apneutic centers
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
48. Which of the following is responsible for deep and prolonged inspiration
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
49. Which of the following is responsible for the rhythm and quality of breathing?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
50. The primary respiratory center
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Pons
C. Carotid bodies
D. Aortic bodies
51. Which of the following is TRUE about the mechanism of action of the Aortic and Carotid bodies?
A. If the BP is elevated, the RR increases
B. If the BP is elevated, the RR decreases
C. Elevated BP leads to Metabolic alkalosis
D. Low BP leads to Metabolic acidosis
52. All of the following factors correctly influence respiration except one. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Hydrocodone decreases RR
B. Stress increases RR
C. Increase temperature of the environment, Increase RR
D. Increase altitude, Increase RR
53. When does the heart receives blood from the coronary artery?
A. Systole
B. Diastole
C. When the valves opens
D. When the valves closes
54. Which of the following is more life threatening?
A. BP = 180/100
B. BP = 160/120
C. BP = 90/60
D. BP = 80/50
55. Refers to the pressure when the ventricles are at rest
A. Diastole
B. Systole
C. Preload
D. Pulse pressure
56. Which of the following is TRUE about the blood pressure determinants?
A. Hypervolemia lowers BP
B. Hypervolemia increases GFR
C. HCT of 70% might decrease or increase BP
D. Epinephrine decreases BP
57. Which of the following do not correctly correlates the increase BP of Ms. Aida, a 70 year old diabetic?
A. Females, after the age 65 tends to have lower BP than males
B. Disease process like Diabetes increase BP
C. BP is highest in the morning, and lowest during the night
D. Africans, have a greater risk of hypertension than Caucasian and Asians.
58. How many minutes are allowed to pass if the client had engaged in strenuous activities, smoked or ingested caffeine before taking his/her BP?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 30
59. Too narrow cuff will cause what change in the Client’s BP?
A. True high reading
B. True low reading
C. False high reading
D. False low reading
60. Which is a preferable arm for BP taking?
A. An arm with the most contraptions
B. The left arm of the client with a CVA affecting the right brain
C. The right arm
D. The left arm
61. Which of the following is INCORRECT in assessing client’s BP?
A. Read the mercury at the upper meniscus, preferably at the eye level to prevent error of parallax
B. Inflate and deflate slowly, 2-3 mmHg at a time
C. The sound heard during taking BP is known as KOROTKOFF sound
D. If the BP is taken on the left leg using the popliteal artery pressure, a BP of 160/80 is normal.
62. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of the ERROR OF PARALLAX
A. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false high reading
B. If the eye level is higher than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low reading
C. If the eye level is lower than the level of the meniscus, it will cause a false low reading
D. If the eye level is equal to that of the level of the upper meniscus, the reading is accurate
63. How many minute/s is/are allowed to pass before making a re-reading after the first one?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 15
D. 30
64. Which of the following is TRUE about the auscultation of blood pressure?
A. Pulse + 4 is considered as FULL
B. The bell of the stethoscope is use in auscultating BP
C. Sound produced by BP is considered as HIGH frequency sound
D. Pulse +1 is considered as NORMAL
65. In assessing the abdomen, Which of the following is the correct sequence of the physical assessment?
A. Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
B. Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion, Inspection
C. Inspection, Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion
D. Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion
66. The sequence in examining the quadrants of the abdomen is:
A. RUQ,RLQ,LUQ,LLQ
B. RLQ,RUQ,LLQ,LUQ
C. RUQ,RLQ,LLQ,LUQ
D. RLQ,RUQ,LUQ,LLQ
67. In inspecting the abdomen, which of the following is NOT DONE?
A. Ask the client to void first
B. Knees and legs are straighten to relax the abdomen
C. The best position in assessing the abdomen is Dorsal recumbent
D. The knees and legs are externally rotated
68. Dr. Fabian De Las Santas, is about to conduct an ophthalmoscope examination. Which of the following, if done by a nurse, is a Correct preparation before the procedure?
A. Provide the necessary draping to ensure privacy
B. Open the windows, curtains and light to allow better illumination
C. Pour warm water over the ophthalmoscope to ensure comfort
D. Darken the room to provide better illumination
69. If the client is female, and the doctor is a male and the patient is about to undergo a vaginal and cervical examination, why is it necessary to have a female nurse in attendance?
A. To ensure that the doctor performs the procedure safely
B. To assist the doctor
C. To assess the client’s response to examination
D. To ensure that the procedure is done in an ethical manner
70. In palpating the client’s breast, Which of the following position is necessary for the patient to assume before the start of the procedure?
A. Supine
B. Dorsal recumbent
C. Sitting
D. Lithotomy
71. When is the best time to collect urine specimen for routine urinalysis and C/S?
A. Early morning
B. Later afternoon
C. Midnight
D. Before breakfast
72. Which of the following is among an ideal way of collecting a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity?
A. Use a clean container
B. Discard the first flow of urine to ensure that the urine is not contaminated
C. Collect around 30-50 ml of urine
D. Add preservatives, refrigerate the specimen or add ice according to the agency’s protocol
73. In a 24 hour urine specimen started Friday, 9:00 A.M, which of the following if done by a Nurse indicate a NEED for further procedural debriefing?
A. The nurse ask the client to urinate at 9:00 A.M, Friday and she included the urine in the 24 hour urine specimen
B. The nurse discards the Friday 9:00 A M urine of the client
C. The nurse included the Saturday 9:00 A.M urine of the client to the specimen collection
D. The nurse added preservatives as per protocol and refrigerates the specimen
74. This specimen is required to assess glucose levels and for the presence of albumin the the urine
A. Midstream clean catch urine
B. 24 hours urine collection
C. Postprandial urine collection
D. Second voided urine
75. When should the client test his blood sugar levels for greater accuracy?
A. During meals
B. In between meals
C. Before meals
D. 2 Hours after meals
76. In collecting a urine from a catheterized patient, Which of the following statement indicates an accurate performance of the procedure?
A. Clamp above the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
B. Clamp below the port for 30 to 60 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
C. Clamp above the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
D. Clamp below the port for 5 to 10 minutes before drawing the urine from the port
77. A community health nurse should be resourceful and meet the needs of the client. A villager ask him, Can you test my urine for glucose? Which of the following technique allows the nurse to test a client’s urine for glucose without the need for intricate instruments.
A. Acetic Acid test
B. Nitrazine paper test
C. Benedict’s test
D. Litmus paper test
78. A community health nurse is assessing client’s urine using the Acetic Acid solution. Which of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates lack of correct knowledge with the procedure?
A. The nurse added the Urine as the 2/3 part of the solution
B. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 1/3 part acetic acid
C. The nurse heats the test tube after adding 2/3 part of Urine
D. The nurse determines abnormal result if she noticed that the test tube becomes cloudy
79. Which of the following is incorrect with regards to proper urine testing using Benedict’s Solution?
A. Heat around 5ml of Benedict’s solution together with the urine in a test tube
B. Add 8 to 10 drops of urine
C. Heat the Benedict’s solution without the urine to check if the solution is contaminated
D. If the color remains BLUE, the result is POSITIVE
80. +++ Positive result after Benedicts test is depicted by what color?
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Orange
81. Clinitest is used in testing the urine of a client for glucose. Which of the following, If committed by a nurse indicates error?
A. Specimen is collected after meals
B. The nurse puts 1 clinitest tablet into a test tube
C. She added 5 drops of urine and 10 drops of water
D. If the color becomes orange or red, It is considered postitive
82. Which of the following nursing intervention is important for a client scheduled to have a Guaiac Test?
A. Avoid turnips, radish and horseradish 3 days before procedure
B. Continue iron preparation to prevent further loss of Iron
C. Do not eat read meat 12 hours before procedure
D. Encourage caffeine and dark colored foods to produce accurate results
83. In collecting a routine specimen for fecalysis, Which of the following, if done by a nurse, indicates inadequate knowledge and skills about the procedure?
A. The nurse scoop the specimen specifically at the site with blood and mucus
B. She took around 1 inch of specimen or a teaspoonful
C. Ask the client to call her for the specimen after the client wiped off his anus with a tissue
D. Ask the client to defecate in a bedpan, Secure a sterile container
84. In a routine sputum analysis, Which of the following indicates proper nursing action before sputum collection?
A. Secure a clean container
B. Discard the container if the outside becomes contaminated with the sputum
C. Rinse the client’s mouth with Listerine after collection
D. Tell the client that 4 tablespoon of sputum is needed for each specimen for a routine sputum analysis
85. Who collects Blood specimen?
A. The nurse
B. Medical technologist
C. Physician
D. Physical therapist
86. David, 68 year old male client is scheduled for Serum Lipid analysis. Which of the following health teaching is important to ensure accurate reading?
A. Tell the patient to eat fatty meals 3 days prior to the procedure
B. NPO for 12 hours pre procedure
C. Ask the client to drink 1 glass of water 1 hour prior to the procedure
D. Tell the client that the normal serum lipase level is 50 to 140 U/L
87. The primary factor responsible for body heat production is the
A. Metabolism
B. Release of thyroxin
C. Muscle activity
D. Stress
88. The heat regulating center is found in the
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Pons
89. A process of heat loss which involves the transfer of heat from one surface to another is
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Evaporation
90. Which of the following is a primary factor that affects the BP?
A. Obesity
B. Age
C. Stress
D. Gender
91. The following are social data about the client except
A. Patient’s lifestyle
B. Religious practices
C. Family home situation
D. Usual health status
92. The best position for any procedure that involves vaginal and cervical examination is
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
93. Measure the leg circumference of a client with bipedal edema is best done in what position?
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Sitting
C. Standing
D. Supine
94. In palpating the client’s abdomen, Which of the following is the best position for the client to assume?
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Side lying
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
95. Rectal examination is done with a client in what position?
A. Dorsal recumbent
B. Sims position
C. Supine
D. Lithotomy
96. Which of the following is a correct nursing action when collecting urine specimen from a client with an Indwelling catheter?
A. Collect urine specimen from the drainage bag
B. Detach catheter from the connecting tube and draw the specimen from the port
C. Use sterile syringe to aspirate urine specimen from the drainage port
D. Insert the syringe straight to the port to allow self sealing of the port
97. Which of the following is inappropriate in collecting mid stream clean catch urine specimen for urine analysis?
A. Collect early in the morning, First voided specimen
B. Do perineal care before specimen collection
C. Collect 5 to 10 ml for urine
D. Discard the first flow of the urine
98. When palpating the client’s neck for lymphadenopathy, where should the nurse position himself?
A. At the client’s back
B. At the client’s right side
C. At the client’s left side
D. In front of a sitting client
99. Which of the following is the best position for the client to assume if the back is to be examined by the nurse?
A. Standing
B. Sitting
C. Side lying
D. Prone
100. In assessing the client’s chest, which position best show chest expansion as well as its movements?
A. Sitting
B. Prone
C. Sidelying
D. Supine
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FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST III
100 Item Exam on Fundamentals Of Nursing : Stress, Crisis, Crisis Intervention, Communication, Recording, Learning and Documentation
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST III
Content Outline
1. Physical response to stress
2. Psychological response to stress
3. Spiritual response to stress
4. Stress management
5. Crisis and Crisis intervention
6. Communication
7. Recording
8. Documentation
9. Learning
1. The coronary vessels, unlike any other blood vessels in the body, respond to sympathetic stimulation by
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Vasodilatation
C. Decreases force of contractility
D. Decreases cardiac output
2. What stress response can you expect from a patient with blood sugar of 50 mg / dl?
A. Body will try to decrease the glucose level
B. There will be a halt in release of sex hormones
C. Client will appear restless
D. Blood pressure will increase
3. All of the following are purpose of inflammation except
A. Increase heat, thereby produce abatement of phagocytosis
B. Localized tissue injury by increasing capillary permeability
C. Protect the issue from injury by producing pain
D. Prepare for tissue repair
4. The initial response of tissue after injury is
A. Immediate Vasodilation
B. Transient Vasoconstriction
C. Immediate Vasoconstriction
D. Transient Vasodilation
5. The last expected process in the stages of inflammation is characterized by
A. There will be sudden redness of the affected part
B. Heat will increase on the affected part
C. The affected part will loss its normal function
D. Exudates will flow from the injured site
6. What kind of exudates is expected when there is an antibody-antigen reaction as a result of microorganism infection?
A. Serous
B. Serosanguinous
C. Purulent
D. Sanguinous
7. The first manifestation of inflammation is
A. Redness on the affected area
B. Swelling of the affected area
C. Pain, which causes guarding of the area
D. Increase heat due to transient vasodilation
8. The client has a chronic tissue injury. Upon examining the client’s antibody for a particular cellular response, Which of the following WBC component is responsible for phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury?
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
9. Which of the following WBC component proliferates in cases of Anaphylaxis?
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
10. Icheanne, ask you, her Nurse, about WBC Components. She got an injury yesterday after she twisted her ankle accidentally at her gymnastic class. She asked you, which WBC Component is responsible for proliferation at the injured site immediately following an injury. You answer:
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
11. Icheanne then asked you, what is the first process that occurs in the inflammatory response after injury, You tell her:
A. Phagocytosis
B. Emigration
C. Pavementation
D. Chemotaxis
12. Icheanne asked you again, What is that term that describes the magnetic attraction of injured tissue to bring phagocytes to the site of injury?
A. Icheanne, you better sleep now, you asked a lot of questions
B. It is Diapedesis
C. We call that Emigration
D. I don’t know the answer, perhaps I can tell you after I find it out later
13. This type of healing occurs when there is a delayed surgical closure of infected wound
A. First intention
B. Second intention
C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention
14. Type of healing when scars are minimal due to careful surgical incision and good healing
A. First intention
B. Second intention
C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention
15. Imelda, was slashed and hacked by an unknown suspects. She suffered massive tissue loss and laceration on her arms and elbow in an attempt to evade the criminal. As a nurse, you know that the type of healing that will most likely occur to Miss Imelda is
A. First intention
B. Second intention
C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention
16. Imelda is in the recovery stage after the incident. As a nurse, you know that the diet that will be prescribed to Miss Imelda is
A. Low calorie, High protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
B. High protein, High calorie with Vitamin A and C rich foods
C. High calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
D. Low calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
17. Miss Imelda asked you, What is WET TO DRY Dressing method? Your best response is
A. It is a type of mechanical debridement using Wet dressing that is applied and left to dry to remove dead tissues
B. It is a type of surgical debridement with the use of Wet dressing to remove the necrotic tissues
C. It is a type of dressing where in, The wound is covered with Wet or Dry dressing to prevent contamination
D. It is a type of dressing where in, A cellophane or plastic is placed on the wound over a wet dressing to stimulate healing of the wound in a wet medium
18. The primary cause of pain in inflammation is
A. Release of pain mediators
B. Injury to the nerve endings
C. Compression of the local nerve endings by the edema fluids
D. Circulation is lessen, Supply of oxygen is insufficient
19. The client is in stress because he was told by the physician he needs to undergo surgery for removal of tumor in his bladder. Which of the following are effects of sympatho-adreno-medullary response by the client?
1. Constipation
2. Urinary frequency
3. Hyperglycemia
4. Increased blood pressure
A. 3,4
B. 1,3,4
C.1,2,4
D.1,4
20. The client is on NPO post midnight. Which of the following, if done by the client, is sufficient to cancel the operation in the morning?
A. Eat a full meal at 10:00 P.M
B. Drink fluids at 11:50 P.M
C. Brush his teeth the morning before operation
D. Smoke cigarette around 3:00 A.M
21. The client place on NPO for preparation of the blood test. Adreno-cortical response is activated and which of the following below is an expected response?
A. Low BP
B. Decrease Urine output
C. Warm, flushed, dry skin
D. Low serum sodium levels
22. Which of the following is true about therapeutic relationship?
A. Directed towards helping an individual both physically and emotionally
B. Bases on friendship and mutual trust
C. Goals are set by the solely nurse
D. Maintained even after the client doesn’t need anymore of the Nurse’s help
23. According to her, A nurse patient relationship is composed of 4 stages : Orientation, Identification, Exploitation and Resolution
A. Roy
B. Peplau
C. Rogers
D. Travelbee
24. In what phase of Nurse patient relationship does a nurse review the client’s medical records thereby learning as much as possible about the client?
A. Pre Orientation
B. Orientation
C. Working
D. Termination
25. Nurse Aida has seen her patient, Roger for the first time. She establish a contract about the frequency of meeting and introduce to Roger the expected termination. She started taking baseline assessment and set interventions and outcomes. On what phase of NPR Does Nurse Aida and Roger belong?
A. Pre Orientation
B. Orientation
C. Working
D. Termination
26. Roger has been seen agitated, shouting and running. As Nurse Aida approaches, he shouts and swear, calling Aida names. Nurse Aida told Roger “That is an unacceptable behavior Roger, Stop and go to your room now.” The situation is most likely in what phase of NPR?
A. Pre Orientation
B. Orientation
C. Working
D. Termination
27. Nurse Aida, in spite of the incident, still consider Roger as worthwhile simply because he is a human being. What major ingredient of a therapeutic communication is Nurse Aida using?
A. Empathy
B. Positive regard
C. Comfortable sense of self
D. Self awareness
28. Nurse Irma saw Roger and told Nurse Aida “ Oh look at that psychotic patient “ Nurse Aida should intervene and correct Nurse Irma because her statement shows that she is lacking?
A. Empathy
B. Positive regard
C. Comfortable sense of self
D. Self awareness
29. Which of the following statement is not true about stress?
A. It is a nervous energy
B. It is an essential aspect of existence
C. It has been always a part of human experience
D. It is something each person has to cope
30. Martina, a Tennis champ was devastated after many new competitors outpaced her in the Wimbledon event.
She became depressed and always seen crying. Martina is clearly on what kind of situation?
A. Martina is just stressed out
B. Martina is Anxious
C. Martina is in the exhaustion stage of GAS
D. Martina is in Crisis
31. Which of the following statement is not true with regards to anxiety?
A. It has physiologic component
B. It has psychologic component
C. The source of dread or uneasiness is from an unrecognized entity
D. The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized entity
32. Lorraine, a 27 year old executive was brought to the ER for an unknown reason. She is starting to speak but her speech is disorganized and cannot be understood. On what level of anxiety does this features belongs?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Sever
D. Panic
33. Elton, 21 year old nursing student is taking the board examination. She is sweating profusely, has decreased awareness of his environment and is purely focused on the exam questions characterized by his selective attentiveness. What anxiety level is Elton exemplifying?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Sever
D. Panic
34. You noticed the patient chart : ANXIETY +3 What will you expect to see in this client?
A. An optimal time for learning, Hearing and perception is greatly increased
B. Dilated pupils
C. Unable to communicate
D. Uses palliative coping mechanism
35. When should the nurse starts giving XANAX?
A. When anxiety is +1
B. When the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field and selective inattentiveness
C. When problem solving is not possible
D. When the client is immobile and disorganized
36. Which of the following behavior is not a sign or a symptom of Anxiety?
A. Frequent hand movement
B. Somatization
C. The client asks a question
D. The client is acting out
37. Which of the following intervention is inappropriate for client’s with anxiety?
A. Offer choices
B. Provide a quiet and calm environment
C. Provide detailed explanation on each and every procedures and equipments
D. Bring anxiety down to a controllable level
38. Which of the following statement, if made by the nurse, is considered not therapeutic?
A. “How did you deal with your anxiety before?”
B. “It must be awful to feel anxious.”
C. “How does it feel to be anxious?”
D. “What makes you feel anxious?”
39. Marissa Salva, Uses Benson’s relaxation. How is it done?
A. Systematically tensing muscle groups from top to bottom for 5 seconds, and then releasing them
B. Concentrating on breathing without tensing the muscle, Letting go and repeating a word or sound after each exhalation
C. Using a strong positive, feeling-rich statement about a desired change
D. Exercise combined with meditation to foster relaxation and mental alacrity
40. What type of relaxation technique does Lyza uses if a machine is showing her pulse rate, temperature and muscle tension which she can visualize and assess?
A. Biofeedback
B. Massage
C. Autogenic training
D. Visualization and Imagery
41. This is also known as Self-suggestion or Self-hypnosis
A. Biofeedback
B. Meditation
C. Autogenic training
D. Visualization and Imagery
42. Which among these drugs is NOT an anxiolytic?
A. Valium
B. Ativan
C. Milltown
D. Luvox
43. Kenneth, 25 year old diagnosed with HIV felt that he had not lived up with God’s expectation. He fears that in the course of his illness, God will be punitive and not be supportive. What kind of spiritual crisis is Kenneth experiencing?
1. Spiritual Pain
2. Spiritual Anxiety
3. Spiritual Guilt
4. Spiritual Despair
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 3,4
D. 1,4
44. Grace, believes that her relationship with God is broken. She tried to go to church to ask forgiveness everyday to remedy her feelings. What kind of spiritual distress is Grace experiencing?
A. Spiritual Pan
B. Spiritual Alienation
C. Spiritual Guilt
D. Spiritual Despair
45. Remedios felt “EMPTY” She felt that she has already lost God’s favor and love because of her sins. This is a type of what spiritual crisis?
A. Spiritual Anger
B. Spiritual Loss
C. Spiritual Despair
D. Spiritual Anxiety
46. Budek is working with a schizophrenic patient. He noticed that the client is agitated, pacing back and forth, restless and experiencing Anxiety +3. Budek said “You appear restless” What therapeutic technique did Budek used?
A. Offering general leads
B. Seeking clarification
C. Making observation
D. Encouraging description of perception
47. Rommel told Budek “ I SEE DEAD PEOPLE “ Budek responded “You see dead people?” This Is an example of therapeutic communication technique?
A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
D. Seeking clarification
48. Rommel told Budek, “Do you think Im crazy?” Budek responded, “Do you think your crazy?” Budek uses what example of therapeutic communication?
A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
D. Seeking clarification
49. Myra, 21 year old nursing student has difficulty sleeping. She told Nurse Budek “I really think a lot about my x boyfriend recently” Budek told Myra “And that causes you difficulty sleeping?” Which therapeutic technique is used in this situation?
A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
D. Seeking clarification
50. Myra told Budek “I cannot sleep, I stay away all night” Budek told her “You have difficulty sleeping” This is what type of therapeutic communication technique?
A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
D. Seeking clarification
51. Myra said “I saw my dead grandmother here at my bedside a while ago” Budek responded “Really? That is hard to believe, How do you feel about it?” What technique did Budek used?
A. Disproving
B. Disagreeing
C. Voicing Doubt
D. Presenting Reality
52. Which of the following is a therapeutic communication in response to “I am a GOD, bow before me Or ill summon the dreaded thunder to burn you and purge you to pieces!”
A. “You are not a GOD, you are Professor Tadle and you are a PE Teacher, not a Nurse. I am Glen, Your nurse.”
B. “Oh hail GOD Tadle, everyone bow or face his wrath!”
C. “Hello Mr. Tadle, You are here in the hospital, I am your nurse and you are a patient here”
D. “How can you be a GOD Mr. Tadle? Can you tell me more about it?”
53. Erik John Senna, Told Nurse Budek “ I don’t want to that, I don’t want that thing.. that’s too painful!” Which of the following response is NON THERAPEUTIC
A. “ This must be difficult for you, But I need to inject you this for your own good”
B. “ You sound afraid”
C. “Are you telling me you don’t want this injection?”
D. “Why are you so anxious? Please tell me more about your feelings Erik”
54. Legrande De Salvaje Y Cobrador La Jueteng, was caught by the bacolod police because of his illegal activities. When he got home after paying for the bail, He shouted at his son. What defense mechanism did Mr. La Jueteng used?
A. Restitution
B. Projection
C. Displacement
D. Undoing
55. Later that day, he bought his son ice cream and food. What defense mechanism is Legrande unconsciously doing?
A. Restitution
B. Conversion
C. Redoing
D. Reaction formation
56. Crisis is a sudden event in ones life that disturbs a person’s homeostasis. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in crisis?
A. The person experiences heightened feeling of stress
B. Inability to function in the usual organized manner
C. Lasts for 4 months
D. Indicates unpleasant emotional feelings
57. Which of the following is a characteristic of crisis?
A. Lasts for an unlimited period of time
B. There is a triggering event
C. Situation is not dangerous to the person
D. Person totality is not involved
58. Levito Devin, The Italian prime minister, is due to retire next week. He feels depressed due to the enormous loss of influence, power, fame and fortune. What type of crisis is Devin experiencing?
A. Situational
B. Maturational
C. Social
D. Phenomenal
59. Estrada, The Philippine president, has been unexpectedly impeached and was out of office before the end of his term. He is in what type of crisis?
A. Situational
B. Maturational
C. Social
D. Phenomenal
60. The tsunami in Thailand and Indonesia took thousands of people and change million lives. The people affected by the Tsunami are saddened and do not know how to start all over again. What type of crisis is this?
A. Situational
B. Maturational
C. Social
D. Phenomenal
61. Which of the following is the BEST goal for crisis intervention?
A. Bring back the client in the pre crisis state
B. Make sure that the client becomes better
C. Achieve independence
D. Provide alternate coping mechanism
62. What is the best intervention when the client has just experienced the crisis and still at the first phase of the crisis?
A. Behavior therapy
B. Gestalt therapy
C. Cognitive therapy
D. Milieu Therapy
63. Therapeutic nurse client relationship is describes as follows
1. Based on friendship and mutual interest
2. It is a professional relationship
3. It is focused on helping the patient solve problems and achieve health-related goals
4. Maintained only as long as the patient requires professional help
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,3,4
64. The client is scheduled to have surgical removal of the tumor on her left breast. Which of the following manifestation indicates that she is experiencing Mild Anxiety?
A. She has increased awareness of her environmental details
B. She focused on selected aspect of her illness
C. She experiences incongruence of action, thoughts and feelings
D. She experiences random motor activities
65. Which of the following nursing intervention would least likely be effective when dealing with a client with aggressive behavior?
A. Approach him in a calm manner
B. Provide opportunities to express feelings
C. Maintain eye contact with the client
D. Isolate the client from others
66. Whitney, a patient of nurse Budek, verbalizes… “I have nothing, nothing… nothing! Don't make me close one more door, I don't wanna hurt anymore!” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by Budek?
A. Why are you singing?
B. What makes you say that?
C. Ofcourse you are everything!
D. What is that you said?
67. Whitney verbalizes that she is anxious that the diagnostic test might reveal laryngeal cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Tell the client not to worry until the results are in
B. Ask the client to express feelings and concern
C. Reassure the client everything will be alright
D. Advice the client to divert his attention by watching television and reading newspapers
68. Considered as the most accurate expression of person’s thought and feelings
A. Verbal communication
B. Non verbal communication
C. Written communication
D. Oral communication
69. Represents inner feeling that a person do not like talking about.
A. Overt communication
B. Covert communication
C. Verbal communication
D. Non verbal communication
70. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective Nurse-Client relationship?
A. Focused on the patient
B. Based on mutual trust
C. Conveys acceptance
D. Discourages emotional bond
71. A type of record wherein , each person or department makes notation in separate records. A nurse will use the nursing notes, The doctor will use the Physician’s order sheet etc. Data is arranged according to information source.
A. POMR
B. POR
C. Traditional
D. Resource oriented
72. Type of recording that integrates all data about the problem, gathered by members of the health team.
A. POMR
B. Traditional
C. Resource oriented
D. Source oriented
73. These are data that are monitored by using graphic charts or graphs that indicated the progression or fluctuation of client’s Temperature and Blood pressure.
A. Progress notes
B. Kardex
C. Flow chart
D. Flow sheet
74. Provides a concise method of organizing and recording data about the client. It is a series of flip cards kept in portable file used in change of shift reports.
A. Kardex
B. Progress Notes
C. SOAPIE
D. Change of shift report
75. You are about to write an information on the Kardex. There are 4 available writing instruments to use. Which of the following should you use?
A. Mongol #2
B. Permanent Ink
C. A felt or fountain pen
D. Pilot Pentel Pen marker
76. The client has an allergy to Iodine based dye. Where should you put this vital information in the client’s chart?
A. In the first page of the client’s chart
B. At the last page of the client’s chart
C. At the front metal plate of the chart
D. In the Kardex
77. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Kardex
A. It provides readily available information
B. It is a tool of end of shift reports
C. The primary basis of endorsement
D. Where Allergies information are written
78. Which of the following, if seen on the Nurses notes, violates characteristic of good recording?
A. The client has a blood pressure of 120/80, Temperature of 36.6 C Pulse rate of 120 and Respiratory rate of 22
B. Ate 50% of food served
C. Refused administration of betaxolol
D. Visited and seen By Dr. Santiago
79. The physician ordered : Mannerix a.c , what does a.c means?
A. As desired
B. Before meals
C. After meals
D. Before bed time
80. The physician ordered, Maalox, 2 hours p.c, what does p.c means?
A. As desired
B. Before meals
C. After meals
D. Before bed time
81. The physician ordered, Maxitrol, Od. What does Od means?
A. Left eye
B. Right eye
C. Both eye
D. Once a day
82. The physician orderd, Magnesium Hydroxide cc Aluminum Hydroxide. What does cc means?
A. without
B. with
C. one half
D. With one half dose
83. Physician ordered, Paracetamol tablet ss. What does ss means?
A. without
B. with
C. one half
D. With one half dose
84. Which of the following indicates that learning has been achieved?
A. Matuts starts exercising every morning and eating a balance diet after you taught her mag HL tayo program
B. Donya Delilah has been able to repeat the steps of insulin administration after you taught it to her
C. Marsha said “ I understand “ after you a health teaching about family planning
D. John rated 100% on your given quiz about smoking and alcoholism
85. In his theory of learning as a BEHAVIORISM, he stated that transfer of knowledge occurs if a new situation closely resembles an old one.
A. Bloom
B. Lewin
C. Thorndike
D. Skinner
86. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to learning?
A. Start from complex to simple
B. Goals should be hard to achieve so patient can strive to attain unrealistic goals
C. Visual learning is the best for every individual
D. Do not teach a client when he is in pain
87. According to Bloom, there are 3 domains in learning. Which of these domains is responsible for the ability of Donya Delilah to inject insulin?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Psychomotor
D. Motivative
88. Which domains of learning is responsible for making John and Marsha understand the different kinds of family planning methods?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Psychomotor
D. Motivative
89. Which of the following statement clearly defines therapeutic communication?
A. Therapeutic communication is an interaction process which is primarily directed by the nurse
B. It conveys feeling of warmth, acceptance and empathy from the nurse to a patient in relaxed atmosphere
C. Therapeutic communication is a reciprocal interaction based on trust and aimed at identifying patient needs and developing mutual goals
D. Therapeutic communication is an assessment component of the nursing process
90. Which of the following concept is most important in establishing a therapeutic nurse patient relationship?
A. The nurse must fully understand the patient’s feelings, perception and reactions before goals can be established
B. The nurse must be a role model for health fostering behavior
C. The nurse must recognize that the patient may manifest maladaptive behavior after illness
D. The nurse should understand that patients might test her before trust is established
91. Which of the following communication skill is most effective in dealing with covert communication?
A. Validation
B. Listening
C. Evaluation
D. Clarification
92. Which of the following are qualities of a good recording?
1. Brevity
2. Completeness and chronology
3. Appropriateness
4. Accuracy
A. 1,2
B. 3,4
C. 1,2,3
D. 1,2,3,4
93. All of the following chart entries are correct except
A. V/S 36.8 C,80,16,120/80
B. Complained of chest pain
C. Seems agitated
D. Able to ambulate without assistance
94. Which of the following teaching method is effective in client who needs to be educated about self injection of insulin?
A. Detailed explanation
B. Demonstration
C. Use of pamphlets
D. Film showing
95. What is the most important characteristic of a nurse patient relationship?
A. It is growth facilitating
B. Based on mutual understanding
C. Fosters hope and confidence
D. Involves primarily emotional bond
96. Which of the following nursing intervention is needed before teaching a client post spleenectomy deep breathing and coughing exercises?
A. Tell the patient that deep breathing and coughing exercises is needed to promote good breathing, circulation and prevent complication
B. Tell the client that deep breathing and coughing exercises is needed to prevent Thrombophlebitis, hydrostatic pneumonia and atelectasis
C. Medicate client for pain
D. Tell client that cooperation is vital to improve recovery
97. The client has an allergy with penicillin. What is the best way to communicate this information?
A. Place an allergy alert in the Kardex
B. Notify the attending physician
C. Write it on the patient’s chart
D. Take note when giving medications
98. An adult client is on extreme pain. He is moaning and grimacing. What is the best way to assess the client’s pain?
A. Perform physical assessment
B. Have the client rate his pain on the smiley pain rating scale
C. Active listening on what the patient says
D. Observe the client’s behavior
99. Therapeutic communication begins with?
A. Knowing your client
B. Knowing yourself
C. Showing empathy
D. Encoding
100. The PCS gave new guidelines including leaflets to educate cancer patients. As a nurse, When using materials like this, what is your responsibility?
A. Read it for the patient
B. Give it for the patient to read himself
C. Let the family member read the material for the patient
D. Read it yourself then, Have the client read the material
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST III
Content Outline
1. Physical response to stress
2. Psychological response to stress
3. Spiritual response to stress
4. Stress management
5. Crisis and Crisis intervention
6. Communication
7. Recording
8. Documentation
9. Learning
1. The coronary vessels, unlike any other blood vessels in the body, respond to sympathetic stimulation by
A. Vasoconstriction
B. Vasodilatation
C. Decreases force of contractility
D. Decreases cardiac output
2. What stress response can you expect from a patient with blood sugar of 50 mg / dl?
A. Body will try to decrease the glucose level
B. There will be a halt in release of sex hormones
C. Client will appear restless
D. Blood pressure will increase
3. All of the following are purpose of inflammation except
A. Increase heat, thereby produce abatement of phagocytosis
B. Localized tissue injury by increasing capillary permeability
C. Protect the issue from injury by producing pain
D. Prepare for tissue repair
4. The initial response of tissue after injury is
A. Immediate Vasodilation
B. Transient Vasoconstriction
C. Immediate Vasoconstriction
D. Transient Vasodilation
5. The last expected process in the stages of inflammation is characterized by
A. There will be sudden redness of the affected part
B. Heat will increase on the affected part
C. The affected part will loss its normal function
D. Exudates will flow from the injured site
6. What kind of exudates is expected when there is an antibody-antigen reaction as a result of microorganism infection?
A. Serous
B. Serosanguinous
C. Purulent
D. Sanguinous
7. The first manifestation of inflammation is
A. Redness on the affected area
B. Swelling of the affected area
C. Pain, which causes guarding of the area
D. Increase heat due to transient vasodilation
8. The client has a chronic tissue injury. Upon examining the client’s antibody for a particular cellular response, Which of the following WBC component is responsible for phagocytosis in chronic tissue injury?
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
9. Which of the following WBC component proliferates in cases of Anaphylaxis?
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
10. Icheanne, ask you, her Nurse, about WBC Components. She got an injury yesterday after she twisted her ankle accidentally at her gymnastic class. She asked you, which WBC Component is responsible for proliferation at the injured site immediately following an injury. You answer:
A. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes
11. Icheanne then asked you, what is the first process that occurs in the inflammatory response after injury, You tell her:
A. Phagocytosis
B. Emigration
C. Pavementation
D. Chemotaxis
12. Icheanne asked you again, What is that term that describes the magnetic attraction of injured tissue to bring phagocytes to the site of injury?
A. Icheanne, you better sleep now, you asked a lot of questions
B. It is Diapedesis
C. We call that Emigration
D. I don’t know the answer, perhaps I can tell you after I find it out later
13. This type of healing occurs when there is a delayed surgical closure of infected wound
A. First intention
B. Second intention
C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention
14. Type of healing when scars are minimal due to careful surgical incision and good healing
A. First intention
B. Second intention
C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention
15. Imelda, was slashed and hacked by an unknown suspects. She suffered massive tissue loss and laceration on her arms and elbow in an attempt to evade the criminal. As a nurse, you know that the type of healing that will most likely occur to Miss Imelda is
A. First intention
B. Second intention
C. Third intention
D. Fourth intention
16. Imelda is in the recovery stage after the incident. As a nurse, you know that the diet that will be prescribed to Miss Imelda is
A. Low calorie, High protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
B. High protein, High calorie with Vitamin A and C rich foods
C. High calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
D. Low calorie, Low protein with Vitamin A and C rich foods
17. Miss Imelda asked you, What is WET TO DRY Dressing method? Your best response is
A. It is a type of mechanical debridement using Wet dressing that is applied and left to dry to remove dead tissues
B. It is a type of surgical debridement with the use of Wet dressing to remove the necrotic tissues
C. It is a type of dressing where in, The wound is covered with Wet or Dry dressing to prevent contamination
D. It is a type of dressing where in, A cellophane or plastic is placed on the wound over a wet dressing to stimulate healing of the wound in a wet medium
18. The primary cause of pain in inflammation is
A. Release of pain mediators
B. Injury to the nerve endings
C. Compression of the local nerve endings by the edema fluids
D. Circulation is lessen, Supply of oxygen is insufficient
19. The client is in stress because he was told by the physician he needs to undergo surgery for removal of tumor in his bladder. Which of the following are effects of sympatho-adreno-medullary response by the client?
1. Constipation
2. Urinary frequency
3. Hyperglycemia
4. Increased blood pressure
A. 3,4
B. 1,3,4
C.1,2,4
D.1,4
20. The client is on NPO post midnight. Which of the following, if done by the client, is sufficient to cancel the operation in the morning?
A. Eat a full meal at 10:00 P.M
B. Drink fluids at 11:50 P.M
C. Brush his teeth the morning before operation
D. Smoke cigarette around 3:00 A.M
21. The client place on NPO for preparation of the blood test. Adreno-cortical response is activated and which of the following below is an expected response?
A. Low BP
B. Decrease Urine output
C. Warm, flushed, dry skin
D. Low serum sodium levels
22. Which of the following is true about therapeutic relationship?
A. Directed towards helping an individual both physically and emotionally
B. Bases on friendship and mutual trust
C. Goals are set by the solely nurse
D. Maintained even after the client doesn’t need anymore of the Nurse’s help
23. According to her, A nurse patient relationship is composed of 4 stages : Orientation, Identification, Exploitation and Resolution
A. Roy
B. Peplau
C. Rogers
D. Travelbee
24. In what phase of Nurse patient relationship does a nurse review the client’s medical records thereby learning as much as possible about the client?
A. Pre Orientation
B. Orientation
C. Working
D. Termination
25. Nurse Aida has seen her patient, Roger for the first time. She establish a contract about the frequency of meeting and introduce to Roger the expected termination. She started taking baseline assessment and set interventions and outcomes. On what phase of NPR Does Nurse Aida and Roger belong?
A. Pre Orientation
B. Orientation
C. Working
D. Termination
26. Roger has been seen agitated, shouting and running. As Nurse Aida approaches, he shouts and swear, calling Aida names. Nurse Aida told Roger “That is an unacceptable behavior Roger, Stop and go to your room now.” The situation is most likely in what phase of NPR?
A. Pre Orientation
B. Orientation
C. Working
D. Termination
27. Nurse Aida, in spite of the incident, still consider Roger as worthwhile simply because he is a human being. What major ingredient of a therapeutic communication is Nurse Aida using?
A. Empathy
B. Positive regard
C. Comfortable sense of self
D. Self awareness
28. Nurse Irma saw Roger and told Nurse Aida “ Oh look at that psychotic patient “ Nurse Aida should intervene and correct Nurse Irma because her statement shows that she is lacking?
A. Empathy
B. Positive regard
C. Comfortable sense of self
D. Self awareness
29. Which of the following statement is not true about stress?
A. It is a nervous energy
B. It is an essential aspect of existence
C. It has been always a part of human experience
D. It is something each person has to cope
30. Martina, a Tennis champ was devastated after many new competitors outpaced her in the Wimbledon event.
She became depressed and always seen crying. Martina is clearly on what kind of situation?
A. Martina is just stressed out
B. Martina is Anxious
C. Martina is in the exhaustion stage of GAS
D. Martina is in Crisis
31. Which of the following statement is not true with regards to anxiety?
A. It has physiologic component
B. It has psychologic component
C. The source of dread or uneasiness is from an unrecognized entity
D. The source of dread or uneasiness is from a recognized entity
32. Lorraine, a 27 year old executive was brought to the ER for an unknown reason. She is starting to speak but her speech is disorganized and cannot be understood. On what level of anxiety does this features belongs?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Sever
D. Panic
33. Elton, 21 year old nursing student is taking the board examination. She is sweating profusely, has decreased awareness of his environment and is purely focused on the exam questions characterized by his selective attentiveness. What anxiety level is Elton exemplifying?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Sever
D. Panic
34. You noticed the patient chart : ANXIETY +3 What will you expect to see in this client?
A. An optimal time for learning, Hearing and perception is greatly increased
B. Dilated pupils
C. Unable to communicate
D. Uses palliative coping mechanism
35. When should the nurse starts giving XANAX?
A. When anxiety is +1
B. When the client starts to have a narrow perceptual field and selective inattentiveness
C. When problem solving is not possible
D. When the client is immobile and disorganized
36. Which of the following behavior is not a sign or a symptom of Anxiety?
A. Frequent hand movement
B. Somatization
C. The client asks a question
D. The client is acting out
37. Which of the following intervention is inappropriate for client’s with anxiety?
A. Offer choices
B. Provide a quiet and calm environment
C. Provide detailed explanation on each and every procedures and equipments
D. Bring anxiety down to a controllable level
38. Which of the following statement, if made by the nurse, is considered not therapeutic?
A. “How did you deal with your anxiety before?”
B. “It must be awful to feel anxious.”
C. “How does it feel to be anxious?”
D. “What makes you feel anxious?”
39. Marissa Salva, Uses Benson’s relaxation. How is it done?
A. Systematically tensing muscle groups from top to bottom for 5 seconds, and then releasing them
B. Concentrating on breathing without tensing the muscle, Letting go and repeating a word or sound after each exhalation
C. Using a strong positive, feeling-rich statement about a desired change
D. Exercise combined with meditation to foster relaxation and mental alacrity
40. What type of relaxation technique does Lyza uses if a machine is showing her pulse rate, temperature and muscle tension which she can visualize and assess?
A. Biofeedback
B. Massage
C. Autogenic training
D. Visualization and Imagery
41. This is also known as Self-suggestion or Self-hypnosis
A. Biofeedback
B. Meditation
C. Autogenic training
D. Visualization and Imagery
42. Which among these drugs is NOT an anxiolytic?
A. Valium
B. Ativan
C. Milltown
D. Luvox
43. Kenneth, 25 year old diagnosed with HIV felt that he had not lived up with God’s expectation. He fears that in the course of his illness, God will be punitive and not be supportive. What kind of spiritual crisis is Kenneth experiencing?
1. Spiritual Pain
2. Spiritual Anxiety
3. Spiritual Guilt
4. Spiritual Despair
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 3,4
D. 1,4
44. Grace, believes that her relationship with God is broken. She tried to go to church to ask forgiveness everyday to remedy her feelings. What kind of spiritual distress is Grace experiencing?
A. Spiritual Pan
B. Spiritual Alienation
C. Spiritual Guilt
D. Spiritual Despair
45. Remedios felt “EMPTY” She felt that she has already lost God’s favor and love because of her sins. This is a type of what spiritual crisis?
A. Spiritual Anger
B. Spiritual Loss
C. Spiritual Despair
D. Spiritual Anxiety
46. Budek is working with a schizophrenic patient. He noticed that the client is agitated, pacing back and forth, restless and experiencing Anxiety +3. Budek said “You appear restless” What therapeutic technique did Budek used?
A. Offering general leads
B. Seeking clarification
C. Making observation
D. Encouraging description of perception
47. Rommel told Budek “ I SEE DEAD PEOPLE “ Budek responded “You see dead people?” This Is an example of therapeutic communication technique?
A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
D. Seeking clarification
48. Rommel told Budek, “Do you think Im crazy?” Budek responded, “Do you think your crazy?” Budek uses what example of therapeutic communication?
A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
D. Seeking clarification
49. Myra, 21 year old nursing student has difficulty sleeping. She told Nurse Budek “I really think a lot about my x boyfriend recently” Budek told Myra “And that causes you difficulty sleeping?” Which therapeutic technique is used in this situation?
A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
D. Seeking clarification
50. Myra told Budek “I cannot sleep, I stay away all night” Budek told her “You have difficulty sleeping” This is what type of therapeutic communication technique?
A. Reflecting
B. Restating
C. Exploring
D. Seeking clarification
51. Myra said “I saw my dead grandmother here at my bedside a while ago” Budek responded “Really? That is hard to believe, How do you feel about it?” What technique did Budek used?
A. Disproving
B. Disagreeing
C. Voicing Doubt
D. Presenting Reality
52. Which of the following is a therapeutic communication in response to “I am a GOD, bow before me Or ill summon the dreaded thunder to burn you and purge you to pieces!”
A. “You are not a GOD, you are Professor Tadle and you are a PE Teacher, not a Nurse. I am Glen, Your nurse.”
B. “Oh hail GOD Tadle, everyone bow or face his wrath!”
C. “Hello Mr. Tadle, You are here in the hospital, I am your nurse and you are a patient here”
D. “How can you be a GOD Mr. Tadle? Can you tell me more about it?”
53. Erik John Senna, Told Nurse Budek “ I don’t want to that, I don’t want that thing.. that’s too painful!” Which of the following response is NON THERAPEUTIC
A. “ This must be difficult for you, But I need to inject you this for your own good”
B. “ You sound afraid”
C. “Are you telling me you don’t want this injection?”
D. “Why are you so anxious? Please tell me more about your feelings Erik”
54. Legrande De Salvaje Y Cobrador La Jueteng, was caught by the bacolod police because of his illegal activities. When he got home after paying for the bail, He shouted at his son. What defense mechanism did Mr. La Jueteng used?
A. Restitution
B. Projection
C. Displacement
D. Undoing
55. Later that day, he bought his son ice cream and food. What defense mechanism is Legrande unconsciously doing?
A. Restitution
B. Conversion
C. Redoing
D. Reaction formation
56. Crisis is a sudden event in ones life that disturbs a person’s homeostasis. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in crisis?
A. The person experiences heightened feeling of stress
B. Inability to function in the usual organized manner
C. Lasts for 4 months
D. Indicates unpleasant emotional feelings
57. Which of the following is a characteristic of crisis?
A. Lasts for an unlimited period of time
B. There is a triggering event
C. Situation is not dangerous to the person
D. Person totality is not involved
58. Levito Devin, The Italian prime minister, is due to retire next week. He feels depressed due to the enormous loss of influence, power, fame and fortune. What type of crisis is Devin experiencing?
A. Situational
B. Maturational
C. Social
D. Phenomenal
59. Estrada, The Philippine president, has been unexpectedly impeached and was out of office before the end of his term. He is in what type of crisis?
A. Situational
B. Maturational
C. Social
D. Phenomenal
60. The tsunami in Thailand and Indonesia took thousands of people and change million lives. The people affected by the Tsunami are saddened and do not know how to start all over again. What type of crisis is this?
A. Situational
B. Maturational
C. Social
D. Phenomenal
61. Which of the following is the BEST goal for crisis intervention?
A. Bring back the client in the pre crisis state
B. Make sure that the client becomes better
C. Achieve independence
D. Provide alternate coping mechanism
62. What is the best intervention when the client has just experienced the crisis and still at the first phase of the crisis?
A. Behavior therapy
B. Gestalt therapy
C. Cognitive therapy
D. Milieu Therapy
63. Therapeutic nurse client relationship is describes as follows
1. Based on friendship and mutual interest
2. It is a professional relationship
3. It is focused on helping the patient solve problems and achieve health-related goals
4. Maintained only as long as the patient requires professional help
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,3,4
64. The client is scheduled to have surgical removal of the tumor on her left breast. Which of the following manifestation indicates that she is experiencing Mild Anxiety?
A. She has increased awareness of her environmental details
B. She focused on selected aspect of her illness
C. She experiences incongruence of action, thoughts and feelings
D. She experiences random motor activities
65. Which of the following nursing intervention would least likely be effective when dealing with a client with aggressive behavior?
A. Approach him in a calm manner
B. Provide opportunities to express feelings
C. Maintain eye contact with the client
D. Isolate the client from others
66. Whitney, a patient of nurse Budek, verbalizes… “I have nothing, nothing… nothing! Don't make me close one more door, I don't wanna hurt anymore!” Which of the following is the most appropriate response by Budek?
A. Why are you singing?
B. What makes you say that?
C. Ofcourse you are everything!
D. What is that you said?
67. Whitney verbalizes that she is anxious that the diagnostic test might reveal laryngeal cancer. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Tell the client not to worry until the results are in
B. Ask the client to express feelings and concern
C. Reassure the client everything will be alright
D. Advice the client to divert his attention by watching television and reading newspapers
68. Considered as the most accurate expression of person’s thought and feelings
A. Verbal communication
B. Non verbal communication
C. Written communication
D. Oral communication
69. Represents inner feeling that a person do not like talking about.
A. Overt communication
B. Covert communication
C. Verbal communication
D. Non verbal communication
70. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective Nurse-Client relationship?
A. Focused on the patient
B. Based on mutual trust
C. Conveys acceptance
D. Discourages emotional bond
71. A type of record wherein , each person or department makes notation in separate records. A nurse will use the nursing notes, The doctor will use the Physician’s order sheet etc. Data is arranged according to information source.
A. POMR
B. POR
C. Traditional
D. Resource oriented
72. Type of recording that integrates all data about the problem, gathered by members of the health team.
A. POMR
B. Traditional
C. Resource oriented
D. Source oriented
73. These are data that are monitored by using graphic charts or graphs that indicated the progression or fluctuation of client’s Temperature and Blood pressure.
A. Progress notes
B. Kardex
C. Flow chart
D. Flow sheet
74. Provides a concise method of organizing and recording data about the client. It is a series of flip cards kept in portable file used in change of shift reports.
A. Kardex
B. Progress Notes
C. SOAPIE
D. Change of shift report
75. You are about to write an information on the Kardex. There are 4 available writing instruments to use. Which of the following should you use?
A. Mongol #2
B. Permanent Ink
C. A felt or fountain pen
D. Pilot Pentel Pen marker
76. The client has an allergy to Iodine based dye. Where should you put this vital information in the client’s chart?
A. In the first page of the client’s chart
B. At the last page of the client’s chart
C. At the front metal plate of the chart
D. In the Kardex
77. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Kardex
A. It provides readily available information
B. It is a tool of end of shift reports
C. The primary basis of endorsement
D. Where Allergies information are written
78. Which of the following, if seen on the Nurses notes, violates characteristic of good recording?
A. The client has a blood pressure of 120/80, Temperature of 36.6 C Pulse rate of 120 and Respiratory rate of 22
B. Ate 50% of food served
C. Refused administration of betaxolol
D. Visited and seen By Dr. Santiago
79. The physician ordered : Mannerix a.c , what does a.c means?
A. As desired
B. Before meals
C. After meals
D. Before bed time
80. The physician ordered, Maalox, 2 hours p.c, what does p.c means?
A. As desired
B. Before meals
C. After meals
D. Before bed time
81. The physician ordered, Maxitrol, Od. What does Od means?
A. Left eye
B. Right eye
C. Both eye
D. Once a day
82. The physician orderd, Magnesium Hydroxide cc Aluminum Hydroxide. What does cc means?
A. without
B. with
C. one half
D. With one half dose
83. Physician ordered, Paracetamol tablet ss. What does ss means?
A. without
B. with
C. one half
D. With one half dose
84. Which of the following indicates that learning has been achieved?
A. Matuts starts exercising every morning and eating a balance diet after you taught her mag HL tayo program
B. Donya Delilah has been able to repeat the steps of insulin administration after you taught it to her
C. Marsha said “ I understand “ after you a health teaching about family planning
D. John rated 100% on your given quiz about smoking and alcoholism
85. In his theory of learning as a BEHAVIORISM, he stated that transfer of knowledge occurs if a new situation closely resembles an old one.
A. Bloom
B. Lewin
C. Thorndike
D. Skinner
86. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to learning?
A. Start from complex to simple
B. Goals should be hard to achieve so patient can strive to attain unrealistic goals
C. Visual learning is the best for every individual
D. Do not teach a client when he is in pain
87. According to Bloom, there are 3 domains in learning. Which of these domains is responsible for the ability of Donya Delilah to inject insulin?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Psychomotor
D. Motivative
88. Which domains of learning is responsible for making John and Marsha understand the different kinds of family planning methods?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Psychomotor
D. Motivative
89. Which of the following statement clearly defines therapeutic communication?
A. Therapeutic communication is an interaction process which is primarily directed by the nurse
B. It conveys feeling of warmth, acceptance and empathy from the nurse to a patient in relaxed atmosphere
C. Therapeutic communication is a reciprocal interaction based on trust and aimed at identifying patient needs and developing mutual goals
D. Therapeutic communication is an assessment component of the nursing process
90. Which of the following concept is most important in establishing a therapeutic nurse patient relationship?
A. The nurse must fully understand the patient’s feelings, perception and reactions before goals can be established
B. The nurse must be a role model for health fostering behavior
C. The nurse must recognize that the patient may manifest maladaptive behavior after illness
D. The nurse should understand that patients might test her before trust is established
91. Which of the following communication skill is most effective in dealing with covert communication?
A. Validation
B. Listening
C. Evaluation
D. Clarification
92. Which of the following are qualities of a good recording?
1. Brevity
2. Completeness and chronology
3. Appropriateness
4. Accuracy
A. 1,2
B. 3,4
C. 1,2,3
D. 1,2,3,4
93. All of the following chart entries are correct except
A. V/S 36.8 C,80,16,120/80
B. Complained of chest pain
C. Seems agitated
D. Able to ambulate without assistance
94. Which of the following teaching method is effective in client who needs to be educated about self injection of insulin?
A. Detailed explanation
B. Demonstration
C. Use of pamphlets
D. Film showing
95. What is the most important characteristic of a nurse patient relationship?
A. It is growth facilitating
B. Based on mutual understanding
C. Fosters hope and confidence
D. Involves primarily emotional bond
96. Which of the following nursing intervention is needed before teaching a client post spleenectomy deep breathing and coughing exercises?
A. Tell the patient that deep breathing and coughing exercises is needed to promote good breathing, circulation and prevent complication
B. Tell the client that deep breathing and coughing exercises is needed to prevent Thrombophlebitis, hydrostatic pneumonia and atelectasis
C. Medicate client for pain
D. Tell client that cooperation is vital to improve recovery
97. The client has an allergy with penicillin. What is the best way to communicate this information?
A. Place an allergy alert in the Kardex
B. Notify the attending physician
C. Write it on the patient’s chart
D. Take note when giving medications
98. An adult client is on extreme pain. He is moaning and grimacing. What is the best way to assess the client’s pain?
A. Perform physical assessment
B. Have the client rate his pain on the smiley pain rating scale
C. Active listening on what the patient says
D. Observe the client’s behavior
99. Therapeutic communication begins with?
A. Knowing your client
B. Knowing yourself
C. Showing empathy
D. Encoding
100. The PCS gave new guidelines including leaflets to educate cancer patients. As a nurse, When using materials like this, what is your responsibility?
A. Read it for the patient
B. Give it for the patient to read himself
C. Let the family member read the material for the patient
D. Read it yourself then, Have the client read the material
Nov 27, 2008
Nov 26, 2008
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST II
100 Item exam on Fundamentals Of Nursing : Infection, Asepsis, Basic concept of stress and Illness
Fundamentals Of Nursing : Infection, Asepsis, Basic concept of stress and Illness
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST II
CONTENT OUTLINE
1. Illness
2. Infection and Asepsis
3. Basic concept of Stress and Adaptation
1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?
A. Pupils will constrict
B. Client will be lethargic
C. Lungs will bronchodilate
D. Gastric motility will increase
2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?
A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle
B. The client will be restless and alert
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation
D. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion
3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except
A. One should be held responsible for his condition
B. One is excused from his societal role
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as possible
D. One is obliged to seek competent help
9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident
A. Predisposing factor
B. Etiology
C. Risk factor
D. Modifiable Risks
10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen
A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity
C. Virulence
D. Etiology
11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease
A. Syndrome
B. Symptoms
C. Signs
D. Etiology
12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?
A. Neoplastic
B. Traumatic
C. Nosocomial
D. Iatrogenic
13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as
1. Nosocomial
2. Idiopathic
3. Neoplastic
4. Traumatic
5. Congenital
6. Degenrative
A. 5 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 3 and 5
14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease
A. Remission
B. Emission
C. Exacerbation
D. Sub acute
15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation
A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Sub acute
D. Sub chronic
16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with the relationship between disease and geographical environment.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal response to a stimuli.
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to illness?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?
A. Newspaper
B. School bulletins
C. Community bill boards
D. Radio and Television
28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?
A. Newman
B. Neuman
C. Watson
D. Rogers
29. The following are concept of health:
1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity.
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu
4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4
30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is
A. Bernard
B. Selye
C. Cannon
D. Rogers
31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE
A. Surgical Asepsis
B. Medical Asepsis
C. Sepsis
D. Asepsis
34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his body and can be transferred to another
A. Host
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Carrier
35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.
A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Agent
D. Host
36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave
37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores
A. Sterilization
B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis
38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and symptoms
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process does this man belongs?
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and diseases
A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission
42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?
1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1
43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via
A. Direct contact transmission
B. Vehicle borne transmission
C. Air borne transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the following except
A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness
D. Non Specificity
45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by
A. Urinary catheterization
B. Spread from patient to patient
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses
46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection
A. Skin
B. WBC
C. Leukocytes
D. Immunization
48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except
A. Creed
B. Immunization
C. Current medication being taken
D. Color of the skin
49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and infection
A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing
52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing
A. Time
B. Friction
C. Water
D. Soap
53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….
A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waist
B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbow
C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be above the waist
D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms
54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time method is
A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand
B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand
55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 30 seconds
56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?
A. 1-2 ml
B. 2-3 ml
C. 2-4 ml
D. 5-10 ml
57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection?
A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean
B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including spores
C. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer time
D. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for sterilization
58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in water? You correctly answered her by saying
A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes
B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutes
C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is required
D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the water reached 100 degree Celsius
59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and other things that are required to be sterilized before taken in by the human body
A. Boiling Water
B. Gas sterilization
C. Steam under pressure
D. Radiation
60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where he stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?
A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection
C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection
61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis
A. Wash hand before and after patient contact
B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene
62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under pressure?
A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by autoclave machine
B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering the bags are still intact
C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the autoclave
D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable
63. Which of the following is true about masks?
A. Mask should only cover the nose
B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter
64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?
A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan
C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan
65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an
A. Puncture proof container
B. Reused PET Bottles
C. Black trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”
66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed with cancer of the cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina where supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your initial action?
A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the physician
B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead container
C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead container
D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or remove it
67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the leeches?
A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers
B. Yellow trashcan
C. Black trashcan
D. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not thrown away for they are reusable
68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?
A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries
B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia
69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?
A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do?
A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube
B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do
74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except
A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfaces
B. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not sterile
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile
D. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the sterile field to pick it rather than reaching for it
75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?
A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4 months as long as the bagging is intact
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurse
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile technique
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she must do handwashing and gloving again, but the gown need not be changed.
76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?
A. The dominant hand
B. The non dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience
77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to the operation?
A. Immediately after entering the sterile field
B. After surgical hand scrub
C. Before surgical hand scrub
D. Before entering the sterile field
78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves prior to a surgical procedure?
A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second glove
B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuff
C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand first
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on
79. Which gloves should you remove first?
A. The glove of the non dominant hand
B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary
80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the protective items listed below
1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 3,2,1,5,4
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 2,3,1,5,4
D. 2,3,1,4,5
81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?
1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 4,3,5,1,2
B. 2,3,1,5,4
C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. 1,2,3,4,5
82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how high should the nurse hold the bottle above the receptacle?
A. 1 inch
B. 3 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 10 inches
83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to manipulate the objects in the sterile field using the non sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?
A. The tip should always be lower than the handle
B. The tip should always be above the handle
C. The handle and the tip should be at the same level
D. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward
84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of the following are appropriate actions by the nurse?
1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth
2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s secretion
3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room
4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3
85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing action is required to prevent contamination?
1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish
2. Open faucet with knee or foot control
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing
4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 2,3,4
86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate nursing action?
A. Wash gloved hand first
B. Peel off gloves inside out
C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique
D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves
87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?
A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses
B. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological symptoms
C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response
D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium
88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the non specific response of the body to any demand made upon it.
A. Hans Selye
B. Walter Cannon
C. Claude Bernard
D. Martha Rogers
89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is not a nervous energy
B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to it
C. Stress is not always something to be avoided
D. Stress does not always lead to distress
90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is essential
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleep
C. A single stress can cause a disease
D. Stress always leads to distress
91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general adaptation syndrome?
A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress
B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation
D. Death can ensue
92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into HOMEOSTASIS?
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here, death will ensue unless extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response
A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis
B. There is a totality of response
C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require time
D. Response varies from person to person
98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and electronic devices at the hospital. Which of the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec where majority speaks French. He is starting to learn the language of the people. What type of adaptation is Andy experiencing?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning. Andy arrived in his house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
Fundamentals Of Nursing : Infection, Asepsis, Basic concept of stress and Illness
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST II
CONTENT OUTLINE
1. Illness
2. Infection and Asepsis
3. Basic concept of Stress and Adaptation
1. When the General adaptation syndrome is activated, FLIGHT OR FIGHT response sets in. Sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine while the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine. Which of the following is true with regards to that statement?
A. Pupils will constrict
B. Client will be lethargic
C. Lungs will bronchodilate
D. Gastric motility will increase
2. Which of the following response is not expected to a person whose GAS is activated and the FIGHT OR FLIGHT response sets in?
A. The client will not urinate due to relaxation of the detrusor muscle
B. The client will be restless and alert
C. Clients BP will increase, there will be vasodilation
D. There will be increase glycogenolysis, Pancrease will decrease insulin secretion
3. State in which a person’s physical, emotional, intellectual and social development or spiritual functioning is diminished or impaired compared with a previous experience.
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
4. This is the first stage of illness wherein, the person starts to believe that something is wrong. Also known as the transition phase from wellness to illness.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
5. In this stage of illness, the person accepts or rejects a professionals suggestion. The person also becomes passive and may regress to an earlier stage.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
6. In this stage of illness, The person learns to accept the illness.
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
7. In this stage, the person tries to find answers for his illness. He wants his illness to be validated, his symptoms explained and the outcome reassured or predicted
A. Symptom Experience
B. Assumption of sick role
C. Medical care contact
D. Dependent patient role
8. The following are true with regards to aspect of the sick role except
A. One should be held responsible for his condition
B. One is excused from his societal role
C. One is obliged to get well as soon as possible
D. One is obliged to seek competent help
9. Refers to conditions that increases vulnerability of individual or group to illness or accident
A. Predisposing factor
B. Etiology
C. Risk factor
D. Modifiable Risks
10. Refers to the degree of resistance the potential host has against a certain pathogen
A. Susceptibility
B. Immunity
C. Virulence
D. Etiology
11. A group of symptoms that sums up or constitute a disease
A. Syndrome
B. Symptoms
C. Signs
D. Etiology
12. A woman undergoing radiation therapy developed redness and burning of the skin around the best. This is best classified as what type of disease?
A. Neoplastic
B. Traumatic
C. Nosocomial
D. Iatrogenic
13. The classification of CANCER according to its etiology Is best described as
1. Nosocomial
2. Idiopathic
3. Neoplastic
4. Traumatic
5. Congenital
6. Degenrative
A. 5 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 3 and 5
14. Term to describe the reactiviation and recurrence of pronounced symptoms of a disease
A. Remission
B. Emission
C. Exacerbation
D. Sub acute
15. A type of illness characterized by periods of remission and exacerbation
A. Chronic
B. Acute
C. Sub acute
D. Sub chronic
16. Diseases that results from changes in the normal structure, from recognizable anatomical changes in an organ or body tissue is termed as
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
17. It is the science of organism as affected by factors in their environment. It deals with the relationship between disease and geographical environment.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
18. This is the study of the patterns of health and disease. Its occurrence and distribution in man, for the purpose of control and prevention of disease.
A. Epidemiology
B. Ecology
C. Statistics
D. Geography
19. Refers to diseases that produced no anatomic changes but as a result from abnormal response to a stimuli.
A. Functional
B. Occupational
C. Inorganic
D. Organic
20. In what level of prevention according to Leavell and Clark does the nurse support the client in obtaining OPTIMAL HEALTH STATUS after a disease or injury?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
21. In what level of prevention does the nurse encourage optimal health and increases person’s susceptibility to illness?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
22. Also known as HEALTH MAINTENANCE prevention.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
23. PPD In occupational health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
24. BCG in community health nursing is what type of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
25. A regular pap smear for woman every 3 years after establishing normal pap smear for 3 consecutive years Is advocated. What level of prevention does this belongs?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
26. Self monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above
27. Which is the best way to disseminate information to the public?
A. Newspaper
B. School bulletins
C. Community bill boards
D. Radio and Television
28. Who conceptualized health as integration of parts and subparts of an individual?
A. Newman
B. Neuman
C. Watson
D. Rogers
29. The following are concept of health:
1. Health is a state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing and not merely an absence of disease or infirmity.
2. Health is the ability to maintain balance
3. Health is the ability to maintain internal milieu
4. Health is integration of all parts and subparts of an individual
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,3,4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4
30. The theorist the advocated that health is the ability to maintain dynamic equilibrium is
A. Bernard
B. Selye
C. Cannon
D. Rogers
31. Excessive alcohol intake is what type of risk factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
32. Osteoporosis and degenerative diseases like Osteoarthritis belongs to what type of risk factor?
A. Genetics
B. Age
C. Environment
D. Lifestyle
33. Also known as STERILE TECHNIQUE
A. Surgical Asepsis
B. Medical Asepsis
C. Sepsis
D. Asepsis
34. This is a person or animal, who is without signs of illness but harbors pathogen within his body and can be transferred to another
A. Host
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Carrier
35. Refers to a person or animal, known or believed to have been exposed to a disease.
A. Carrier
B. Contact
C. Agent
D. Host
36. A substance usually intended for use on inanimate objects, that destroys pathogens but not the spores.
A. Sterilization
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptic
D. Autoclave
37. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores
A. Sterilization
B. Auto claving
C. Disinfection
D. Medical asepsis
38. The third period of infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and symptoms
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
39. A child with measles developed fever and general weakness after being exposed to another child with rubella. In what stage of infectious process does this child belongs?
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
40. A 50 year old mailman carried a mail with anthrax powder in it. A minute after exposure, he still hasn’t developed any signs and symptoms of anthrax. In what stage of infectious process does this man belongs?
A. Incubation period
B. Prodromal period
C. Illness period
D. Convalescent period
41. Considered as the WEAKEST LINK in the chain of infection that nurses can manipulate to prevent spread of infection and diseases
A. Etiologic/Infectious agent
B. Portal of Entry
C. Susceptible host
D. Mode of transmission
42. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?
1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6
B. 5,4,2,3,6,1
C. 4,5,3,6,2,1
D. 6,5,4,3,2,1
43. Markee, A 15 year old high school student asked you. What is the mode of transmission of Lyme disease. You correctly answered him that Lyme disease is transmitted via
A. Direct contact transmission
B. Vehicle borne transmission
C. Air borne transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
44. The ability of the infectious agent to cause a disease primarily depends on all of the following except
A. Pathogenicity
B. Virulence
C. Invasiveness
D. Non Specificity
45. Contact transmission of infectious organism in the hospital is usually cause by
A. Urinary catheterization
B. Spread from patient to patient
C. Spread by cross contamination via hands of caregiver
D. Cause by unclean instruments used by doctors and nurses
46. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
47. Considered as the first line of defense of the body against infection
A. Skin
B. WBC
C. Leukocytes
D. Immunization
48. All of the following contributes to host susceptibility except
A. Creed
B. Immunization
C. Current medication being taken
D. Color of the skin
49. Graciel has been injected TT5, her last dosed for tetanus toxoid immunization. Graciel asked you, what type of immunity is TT Injections? You correctly answer her by saying Tetanus toxoid immunization is a/an
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
50. Agatha, was hacked and slashed by a psychotic man while she was crossing the railway. She suffered multiple injuries and was injected Tetanus toxoid Immunoglobulin. Agatha asked you, What immunity does TTIg provides? You best answered her by saying TTIg provides
A. Natural active immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
C. Artificial active immunity
D. Artificial passive immunity
51. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and infection
A. Cleaning
B. Disinfecting
C. Sterilizing
D. Handwashing
52. This is considered as the most important aspect of handwashing
A. Time
B. Friction
C. Water
D. Soap
53. In handwashing by medical asepsis, Hands are held ….
A. Above the elbow, The hands must always be above the waist
B. Above the elbow, The hands are cleaner than the elbow
C. Below the elbow, Medical asepsis do not require hands to be above the waist
D. Below the elbow, Hands are dirtier than the lower arms
54. The suggested time per hand on handwashing using the time method is
A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand
B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand
55. The minimum time in washing each hand should never be below
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 30 seconds
56. How many ml of liquid soap is recommended for handwashing procedure?
A. 1-2 ml
B. 2-3 ml
C. 2-4 ml
D. 5-10 ml
57. Which of the following is not true about sterilization, cleaning and disinfection?
A. Equipment with small lumen are easier to clean
B. Sterilization is the complete destruction of all viable microorganism including spores
C. Some organism are easily destroyed, while other, with coagulated protein requires longer time
D. The number of organism is directly proportional to the length of time required for sterilization
58. Karlita asked you, How long should she boil her glass baby bottle in water? You correctly answered her by saying
A. The minimum time for boiling articles is 5 minutes
B. Boil the glass baby bottler and other articles for atleast 10 minutes
C. For boiling to be effective, a minimum of 15 minutes is required
D. It doesn’t matter how long you boil the articles, as long as the water reached 100 degree Celsius
59. This type of disinfection is best done in sterilizing drugs, foods and other things that are required to be sterilized before taken in by the human body
A. Boiling Water
B. Gas sterilization
C. Steam under pressure
D. Radiation
60. A TB patient was discharged in the hospital. A UV Lamp was placed in the room where he stayed for a week. What type of disinfection is this?
A. Concurrent disinfection
B. Terminal disinfection
C. Regular disinfection
D. Routine disinfection
61. Which of the following is not true in implementing medical asepsis
A. Wash hand before and after patient contact
B. Keep soiled linens from touching the clothings
C. Shake the linens to remove dust
D. Practice good hygiene
62. Which of the following is true about autoclaving or steam under pressure?
A. All kinds of microorganism and their spores are destroyed by autoclave machine
B. The autoclaved instruments can be used for 1 month considering the bags are still intact
C. The instruments are put into unlocked position, on their hinge, during the autoclave
D. Autoclaving different kinds of metals at one time is advisable
63. Which of the following is true about masks?
A. Mask should only cover the nose
B. Mask functions better if they are wet with alcohol
C. Masks can provide durable protection even when worn for a long time and after each and every patient care
D. N95 Mask or particulate masks can filter organism as mall as 1 micromillimeter
64. Where should you put a wet adult diaper?
A. Green trashcan
B. Black trashcan
C. Orange trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan
65. Needles, scalpels, broken glass and lancets are considered as injurious wastes. As a nurse, it is correct to put them at disposal via a/an
A. Puncture proof container
B. Reused PET Bottles
C. Black trashcan
D. Yellow trashcan with a tag “INJURIOUS WASTES”
66. Miranda Priestly, An executive of RAMP magazine, was diagnosed with cancer of the cervix. You noticed that the radioactive internal implant protrudes to her vagina where supposedly, it should be in her cervix. What should be your initial action?
A. Using a long forceps, Push it back towards the cervix then call the physician
B. Wear gloves, remove it gently and place it on a lead container
C. Using a long forceps, Remove it and place it on a lead container
D. Call the physician, You are not allowed to touch, re insert or remove it
67. After leech therapy, Where should you put the leeches?
A. In specially marked BIO HAZARD Containers
B. Yellow trashcan
C. Black trashcan
D. Leeches are brought back to the culture room, they are not thrown away for they are reusable
68. Which of the following should the nurse AVOID doing in preventing spread of infection?
A. Recapping the needle before disposal to prevent injuries
B. Never pointing a needle towards a body part
C. Using only Standard precaution to AIDS Patients
D. Do not give fresh and uncooked fruits and vegetables to Mr. Gatchie, with Neutropenia
69. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?
A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
70. A client has been diagnosed with RUBELLA. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
71. A client has been diagnosed with MEASLES. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
72. A client has been diagnosed with IMPETIGO. What precaution is used for this patient?
A. Standard precaution
B. Airborne precaution
C. Droplet precaution
D. Contact precaution
73. The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do?
A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube
B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do
74. All of the following are principle of SURGICAL ASEPSIS except
A. Microorganism travels to moist surfaces faster than with dry surfaces
B. When in doubt about the sterility of an object, consider it not sterile
C. Once the skin has been sterilized, considered it sterile
D. If you can reach the object by overreaching, just move around the sterile field to pick it rather than reaching for it
75. Which of the following is true in SURGICAL ASEPSIS?
A. Autoclaved linens and gowns are considered sterile for about 4 months as long as the bagging is intact
B. Surgical technique is a sole effort of each nurse
C. Sterile conscience, is the best method to enhance sterile technique
D. If a scrubbed person leaves the area of the sterile field, He/she must do handwashing and gloving again, but the gown need not be changed.
76. In putting sterile gloves, Which should be gloved first?
A. The dominant hand
B. The non dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, Its up to the nurse for her own convenience
77. As the scrubbed nurse, when should you apply the goggles, shoe cap and mask prior to the operation?
A. Immediately after entering the sterile field
B. After surgical hand scrub
C. Before surgical hand scrub
D. Before entering the sterile field
78. Which of the following should the nurse do when applying gloves prior to a surgical procedure?
A. Slipping gloved hand with all fingers when picking up the second glove
B. Grasping the first glove by inserting four fingers, with thumbs up underneath the cuff
C. Putting the gloves into the dominant hand first
D. Adjust only the fitting of the gloves after both gloves are on
79. Which gloves should you remove first?
A. The glove of the non dominant hand
B. The glove of the dominant hand
C. The glove of the left hand
D. Order in removing the gloves Is unnecessary
80. Before a surgical procedure, Give the sequence on applying the protective items listed below
1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 3,2,1,5,4
B. 3,2,1,4,5
C. 2,3,1,5,4
D. 2,3,1,4,5
81. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?
1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
A. 4,3,5,1,2
B. 2,3,1,5,4
C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. 1,2,3,4,5
82. In pouring a plain NSS into a receptacle located in a sterile field, how high should the nurse hold the bottle above the receptacle?
A. 1 inch
B. 3 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 10 inches
83. The tip of the sterile forceps is considered sterile. It is used to manipulate the objects in the sterile field using the non sterile hands. How should the nurse hold a sterile forceps?
A. The tip should always be lower than the handle
B. The tip should always be above the handle
C. The handle and the tip should be at the same level
D. The handle should point downward and the tip, always upward
84. The nurse enters the room of the client on airborne precaution due to tuberculosis. Which of the following are appropriate actions by the nurse?
1. She wears mask, covering the nose and mouth
2. She washes her hands before and after removing gloves, after suctioning the client’s secretion
3. She removes gloves and hands before leaving the client’s room
4. She discards contaminated suction catheter tip in trashcan found in the clients room
A. 1,2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,3
85. When performing surgical hand scrub, which of the following nursing action is required to prevent contamination?
1. Keep fingernail short, clean and with nail polish
2. Open faucet with knee or foot control
3. Keep hands above the elbow when washing and rinsing
4. Wear cap, mask, shoe cover after you scrubbed
A. 1,2
B. 2,3
C. 1,2,3
D. 2,3,4
86. When removing gloves, which of the following is an inappropriate nursing action?
A. Wash gloved hand first
B. Peel off gloves inside out
C. Use glove to glove skin to skin technique
D. Remove mask and gown before removing gloves
87. Which of the following is TRUE in the concept of stress?
A. Stress is not always present in diseases and illnesses
B. Stress are only psychological and manifests psychological symptoms
C. All stressors evoke common adaptive response
D. Hemostasis refers to the dynamic state of equilibrium
88. According to this theorist, in his modern stress theory, Stress is the non specific response of the body to any demand made upon it.
A. Hans Selye
B. Walter Cannon
C. Claude Bernard
D. Martha Rogers
89. Which of the following is NOT TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is not a nervous energy
B. Man, whenever he encounters stresses, always adapts to it
C. Stress is not always something to be avoided
D. Stress does not always lead to distress
90. Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the concept of Modern Stress Theory?
A. Stress is essential
B. Man does not encounter stress if he is asleep
C. A single stress can cause a disease
D. Stress always leads to distress
91. Which of the following is TRUE in the stage of alarm of general adaptation syndrome?
A. Results from the prolonged exposure to stress
B. Levels or resistance is increased
C. Characterized by adaptation
D. Death can ensue
92. The stage of GAS where the adaptation mechanism begins
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
93. Stage of GAS Characterized by adaptation
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
94. Stage of GAS wherein, the Level of resistance are decreased
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
95. Where in stages of GAS does a person moves back into HOMEOSTASIS?
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
96. Stage of GAS that results from prolonged exposure to stress. Here, death will ensue unless extra adaptive mechanisms are utilized
A. Stage of Alarm
B. Stage of Resistance
C. Stage of Homeostasis
D. Stage of Exhaustion
97. All but one is a characteristic of adaptive response
A. This is an attempt to maintain homeostasis
B. There is a totality of response
C. Adaptive response is immediately mobilized, doesn’t require time
D. Response varies from person to person
98. Andy, a newly hired nurse, starts to learn the new technology and electronic devices at the hospital. Which of the following mode of adaptation is Andy experiencing?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
99. Andy is not yet fluent in French, but he works in Quebec where majority speaks French. He is starting to learn the language of the people. What type of adaptation is Andy experiencing?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
100. Andy made an error and his senior nurse issued a written warning. Andy arrived in his house mad and kicked the door hard to shut it off. What adaptation mode is this?
A. Biologic/Physiologic adaptive mode
B. Psychologic adaptive mode
C. Sociocultural adaptive mode
D. Technological adaptive mode
Nov 25, 2008
Communicable Disease Nursing Study Bullets
Communicable Disease Nursing Study Bullets
Communicable Disease Nursing
DRUG OF CHOICE
Tetanus: PEN G Na; DIAZEPAM (Valium)
Meningitis: MANNITOL (osmotic diuretic); DEXAMETHASONE (anti-inflammatory); DILANTIN/PHENYTOIN (anti-convulsive); PYRETINOL/ENCEPHABO L (CNS stimulant)
Rabies Vaccines: LYSSAVAC, VERORAB
Immunoglobulins: ERIG or HRIg
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
Tetanus: WOUND CULTURE
Meningitis: LUMBAR PUNCTURE
Encephalitis: EEG
Polio: EMG; Muscle testing
Rabies: Brain biopsy (Negri bodies) Fluorescent rabies antibody test
Dengue: TOURNIQUET test (Rumpel lead)
Malaria: Malarial smear; QBC (Quantitative Buffy Coat)
Scarlet: DICK'S TEST; SCHULTZ-CHARLTON TEST
Diphtheria: SCHICK'S TEST; Moloney's Test
Pertussis: Nasal swab; agar plate
Tuberculosis: MANTOUX test
Leprosy: SLIT SKIN SMEAR
Pinworm: SCOTCH TAPE SWAB
Typhoid: WIDAL'S test
HIV/AIDS: ELISA; WESTERN BLOT; PCT: Polymerase Chain Reaction Test
CAUSATIVE AGENTS
Tetanus: CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI
Meningococcemia: NEISSERIA MENINGITIDIS
Rabies: RHABDOVIRUS
Poliomyelitis: LEGIO DEBILITANS (Type I Brunhilde); (Type II Lansing); (Type III Leon)
Dengue Fever: ARBOVIRUSES (Chikunggunya); (Onyong-nyong); (West Nile); (Flaviviruses) (Common in the Phil.)
Malaria: PLASMODIUM (protozoa) P. Falciparum (most fatal); P. Vivax P. Malariae; P. Ovale
Filariasis: WUCHERERIA BANCROFTI; BRUGIA MALAYI
Leprosy: MYCOBACTERIUM LEPRAE
Measles: PARAMYXO VIRUS
German measles: TOGA VIRUS
Chicken pox: VARICELLA ZOSTER VIRUS
Herpes zoster: HERPES ZOSTER VIRUS
Scarlet fever: Group A HEMOLYTIC STREPTOCOCCUS
Scabies: SARCOPTES SCABIEI (itch mite)
Bubonic plague: YERSINIA PESTIS
Diphtheria: KLEBS LOEFFLER
Pertussis: BORDETELLA PERTUSSIS
Tuberculosis: MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS
Typhoid: SALMONELLA TYPHI
Cholera: VIBRIO CHOLERA
Amoebiasis: ENTAMOEBA HYSTOLITICA
Leptospirosis: LEPTOSPIRA Spirochete
Schistosomiasis: Schistosoma japonicum
Gonorrhea: N. GONORRHEAE
Syphilis: TREPONEMA PALLIDUM
Chlamydia: C. trachomatis, T. vaginalis
Genital herpes: HERPES SIMPLEX 2
CD PHARMACOLOGY
Malaria: CHLOROQUINE
Schistosomiasis: PRAZIQUANTEL
Scabies: EURAX/ CROTAMITON
Chicken pox: ACYCLOVIR/ZOVIRAX
Tuberculosis: R.I.P.E.S.
Pneumonia: COTRIMOXAZOLE; Procaine Penicillin
Helminths: MEBENDAZOLE; PYRANTEL PAMOATE
Communicable Disease Nursing
DRUG OF CHOICE
Tetanus: PEN G Na; DIAZEPAM (Valium)
Meningitis: MANNITOL (osmotic diuretic); DEXAMETHASONE (anti-inflammatory); DILANTIN/PHENYTOIN (anti-convulsive); PYRETINOL/ENCEPHABO L (CNS stimulant)
Rabies Vaccines: LYSSAVAC, VERORAB
Immunoglobulins: ERIG or HRIg
DIAGNOSTIC TESTS
Tetanus: WOUND CULTURE
Meningitis: LUMBAR PUNCTURE
Encephalitis: EEG
Polio: EMG; Muscle testing
Rabies: Brain biopsy (Negri bodies) Fluorescent rabies antibody test
Dengue: TOURNIQUET test (Rumpel lead)
Malaria: Malarial smear; QBC (Quantitative Buffy Coat)
Scarlet: DICK'S TEST; SCHULTZ-CHARLTON TEST
Diphtheria: SCHICK'S TEST; Moloney's Test
Pertussis: Nasal swab; agar plate
Tuberculosis: MANTOUX test
Leprosy: SLIT SKIN SMEAR
Pinworm: SCOTCH TAPE SWAB
Typhoid: WIDAL'S test
HIV/AIDS: ELISA; WESTERN BLOT; PCT: Polymerase Chain Reaction Test
CAUSATIVE AGENTS
Tetanus: CLOSTRIDIUM TETANI
Meningococcemia: NEISSERIA MENINGITIDIS
Rabies: RHABDOVIRUS
Poliomyelitis: LEGIO DEBILITANS (Type I Brunhilde); (Type II Lansing); (Type III Leon)
Dengue Fever: ARBOVIRUSES (Chikunggunya); (Onyong-nyong); (West Nile); (Flaviviruses) (Common in the Phil.)
Malaria: PLASMODIUM (protozoa) P. Falciparum (most fatal); P. Vivax P. Malariae; P. Ovale
Filariasis: WUCHERERIA BANCROFTI; BRUGIA MALAYI
Leprosy: MYCOBACTERIUM LEPRAE
Measles: PARAMYXO VIRUS
German measles: TOGA VIRUS
Chicken pox: VARICELLA ZOSTER VIRUS
Herpes zoster: HERPES ZOSTER VIRUS
Scarlet fever: Group A HEMOLYTIC STREPTOCOCCUS
Scabies: SARCOPTES SCABIEI (itch mite)
Bubonic plague: YERSINIA PESTIS
Diphtheria: KLEBS LOEFFLER
Pertussis: BORDETELLA PERTUSSIS
Tuberculosis: MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS
Typhoid: SALMONELLA TYPHI
Cholera: VIBRIO CHOLERA
Amoebiasis: ENTAMOEBA HYSTOLITICA
Leptospirosis: LEPTOSPIRA Spirochete
Schistosomiasis: Schistosoma japonicum
Gonorrhea: N. GONORRHEAE
Syphilis: TREPONEMA PALLIDUM
Chlamydia: C. trachomatis, T. vaginalis
Genital herpes: HERPES SIMPLEX 2
CD PHARMACOLOGY
Malaria: CHLOROQUINE
Schistosomiasis: PRAZIQUANTEL
Scabies: EURAX/ CROTAMITON
Chicken pox: ACYCLOVIR/ZOVIRAX
Tuberculosis: R.I.P.E.S.
Pneumonia: COTRIMOXAZOLE; Procaine Penicillin
Helminths: MEBENDAZOLE; PYRANTEL PAMOATE
Nov 24, 2008
Fundamentals of Nursing Test 1 Answer Key
Fundamentals of Nursing Test i
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Nov 23, 2008
FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING TEST I
Content Outline
1. Professional Nursing
A. Historical perspectives in nursing
B. Nursing as a profession
C. Theories in nursing
D. Health care delivery system
1. The four major concepts in nursing theory are the
A. Person, Environment, Nurse, Health
B. Nurse, Person, Environment, Cure
C. Promotive, Preventive, Curative, Rehabilitative
D. Person, Environment, Nursing, Health
2. The act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery is theorized by
A. Nightingale
B. Benner
C. Swanson
D. King
3. For her, Nursing is a theoretical system of knowledge that prescribes a process of analysis and action related to care of the ill person
A. King
B. Henderson
C. Roy
D. Leininger
4. According to her, Nursing is a helping or assistive profession to persons who are wholly or partly dependent or when those who are supposedly caring for them are no longer able to give care.
A. Henderson
B. Orem
C. Swanson
D. Neuman
5. Nursing is a unique profession, Concerned with all the variables affecting an individual’s response to stressors, which are intra, inter and extra personal in nature.
A. Neuman
B. Johnson
C. Watson
D. Parse
6. The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities contributing to health that he would perform unaided if he has the necessary strength, will and knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as rapidly as possible.
A. Henderson
B. Abdellah
C. Levin
D. Peplau
7. Caring is the essence and central unifying, a dominant domain that distinguishes nursing from other health disciplines. Care is an essential human need.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
8. Caring involves 5 processes, KNOWING, BEING WITH, DOING FOR, ENABLING and MAINTAINING BELIEF.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
9. Caring is healing, it is communicated through the consciousness of the nurse to the individual being cared for. It allows access to higher human spirit.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
10. Caring means that person, events, projects and things matter to people. It reveals stress and coping options. Caring creates responsibility. It is an inherent feature of nursing practice. It helps the nurse assist clients to recover in the face of the illness.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
11. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about profession according to Marie Jahoda?
A. A profession is an organization of an occupational group based on the application of special knowledge
B. It serves specific interest of a group
C. It is altruistic
D. Quality of work is of greater importance than the rewards
12. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a professional?
A. Concerned with quantity
B. Self directed
C. Committed to spirit of inquiry
D. Independent
13. The most unique characteristic of nursing as a profession is
A. Education
B. Theory
C. Caring
D. Autonomy
14. This is the distinctive individual qualities that differentiate a person to another
A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Charm
D. Character
15. Refers to the moral values and beliefs that are used as guides to personal behavior and actions
A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Charm
D. Character
16. As a nurse manager, which of the following best describes this function?
A. Initiate modification on client’s lifestyle
B. Protect client’s right
C. Coordinates the activities of other members of the health team in managing patient care
D. Provide in service education programs, Use accurate nursing audit, formulate philosophy and vision of the institution.
17. What best describes nurses as a care provider?
A. Determine client’s need
B. Provide direct nursing care
C. Help client recognize and cope with stressful psychological situation
D. Works in combined effort with all those involved in patient’s care
18. The nurse questions a doctors order of Morphine sulfate 50 mg, IM for a client with pancreatitis. Which role best fit that statement?
A. Change agent
B. Client advocate
C. Case manager
D. Collaborator
19. These are nursing intervention that requires knowledge, skills and expertise of multiple health professionals.
A. Dependent
B. Independent
C. Interdependent
D. Intradependent
20. What type of patient care model is the most common for student nurses and private duty nurses?
A. Total patient care
B. Team nursing
C. Primary Nursing
D. Case management
21. This is the best patient care model when there are many nurses but few patients.
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care
22. This patient care model works best when there are plenty of patient but few nurses
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care
23. RN assumes 24 hour responsibility for the client to maintain continuity of care across shifts, days or visits.
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care
24. Who developed the first theory of nursing?
A. Hammurabi
B. Alexander
C. Fabiola
D. Nightingale
25. She introduces the NATURE OF NURSING MODEL.
A. Henderson
B. Nightingale
C. Parse
D. Orlando
26. She described the four conservation principle.
A. Levin
B. Leininger
C. Orlando
D. Parse
27. Proposed the HEALTH CARE SYSTEM MODEL.
A. Henderson
B. Orem
C. Parse
D. Neuman
28. Conceptualized the BEHAVIORAL SYSTEM MODEL
A. Orem
B. Johnson
C. Henderson
D. Parse
29. Developed the CLINICAL NURSING – A HELPING ART MODEL
A. Swanson
B. Hall
C. Weidenbach
D. Zderad
30. Developed the ROLE MODELING and MODELING theory
A. Erickson,Tomlin,Swain
B. Neuman
C. Newman
D. Benner and Wrubel
31. Proposed the GRAND THEORY OF NURSING AS CARING
A. Erickson, Tomlin, Swain
B. Peterson,Zderad
C. Bnner,Wrubel
D. Boykin,Schoenhofer
32. Postulated the INTERPERSONAL ASPECT OF NURSING
A. Travelbee
B. Swanson
C. Zderad
D. Peplau
33. He proposed the theory of morality that is based on MUTUAL TRUST
A. Freud
B. Erikson
C. Kohlberg
D. Peters
34. He proposed the theory of morality based on PRINCIPLES
A. Freud
B. Erikson
C. Kohlberg
D. Peters
35. Freud postulated that child adopts parental standards and traits through
A. Imitation
B. Introjection
C. Identification
D. Regression
36. According to them, Morality is measured of how people treat human being and that a moral child strives to be kind and just
A. Zderad and Peterson
B. Benner and Wrubel
C. Fowler and Westerhoff
D. Schulman and Mekler
37. Postulated that FAITH is the way of behaving. He developed four theories of faith and development based on his experience.
A. Giligan
B. Westerhoff
C. Fowler
D. Freud
38. He described the development of faith. He suggested that faith is a spiritual dimension that gives meaning to a persons life. Faith according to him, is a relational phenomenon.
A. Giligan
B. Westerhoff
C. Fowler
D. Freud
39. Established in 1906 by the Baptist foreign mission society of America. Miss rose nicolet, was it’s first superintendent.
A. St. Paul Hospital School of nursing
B. Iloilo Mission Hospital School of nursing
C. Philippine General Hospital School of nursing
D. St. Luke’s Hospital School of nursing
40. Anastacia Giron-Tupas was the first Filipino nurse to occupy the position of chief nurse in this hospital.
A. St. Paul Hospital
B. Iloilo Mission Hospital
C. Philippine General Hospital
D. St. Luke’s Hospital
41. She was the daughter of Hungarian kings, who feed 300-900 people everyday in their gate, builds hospitals, and care of the poor and sick herself.
A. Elizabeth
B. Catherine
C. Nightingale
D. Sairey Gamp
42. She dies of yellow fever in her search for truth to prove that yellow fever is carried by a mosquitoes.
A. Clara louise Maas
B. Pearl Tucker
C. Isabel Hampton Robb
D. Caroline Hampton Robb
43. He was called the father of sanitation.
A. Abraham
B. Hippocrates
C. Moses
D. Willam Halstead
44. The country where SHUSHURUTU originated
A. China
B. Egypt
C. India
D. Babylonia
45. They put girls clothes on male infants to drive evil forces away
A. Chinese
B. Egyptian
C. Indian
D. Babylonian
46. In what period of nursing does people believe in TREPHINING to drive evil forces away?
A. Dark period
B. Intuitive period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period
47. This period ended when Pastor Fliedner, build Kaiserwerth institute for the training of Deaconesses
A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period
48. Period of nursing where religious Christian orders emerged to take care of the sick
A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period
49. Founded the second order of St. Francis of Assisi
A. St. Catherine
B. St. Anne
C. St. Clare
D. St. Elizabeth
50. This period marked the religious upheaval of Luther, Who questions the Christian faith.
A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period
51. According to the Biopsychosocial and spiritual theory of Sister Callista Roy, Man, As a SOCIAL being is
A. Like all other men
B. Like some other men
C. Like no other men
D. Like men
52. She conceptualized that man, as an Open system is in constant interaction and transaction with a changing environment.
A. Roy
B. Levin
C. Neuman
D. Newman
53. In a CLOSED system, which of the following is true?
A. Affected by matter
B. A sole island in vast ocean
C. Allows input
D. Constantly affected by matter, energy, information
54. Who postulated the WHOLISTIC concept that the totality is greater than sum of its parts?
A. Roy
B. Rogers
C. Henderson
D. Johnson
55. She theorized that man is composed of sub and supra systems. Subsystems are cells, tissues, organs and systems while the suprasystems are family, society and community.
A. Roy
B. Rogers
C. Henderson
D. Johnson
56. Which of the following is not true about the human needs?
A. Certain needs are common to all people
B. Needs should be followed exactly in accordance with their hierarchy
C. Needs are stimulated by internal factors
D. Needs are stimulated by external factors
57. Which of the following is TRUE about the human needs?
A. May not be deferred
B. Are not interrelated
C. Met in exact and rigid way
D. Priorities are alterable
58. According to Maslow, which of the following is NOT TRUE about a self actualized person?
A. Understands poetry, music, philosophy, science etc.
B. Desires privacy, autonomous
C. Follows the decision of the majority, uphold justice and truth
D. Problem centered
59. According to Maslow, which of the following is TRUE about a self actualized person?
A. Makes decision contrary to public opinion
B. Do not predict events
C. Self centered
D. Maximum degree of self conflict
60. This is the essence of mental health
A. Self awareness
B. Self actualization
C. Self esteem
D. Self worth
61. Florence nightingale is born in
A. Germany
B. Britain
C. France
D. Italy
62. Which is unlikely of Florence Nightingale?
A. Born May 12, 1840
B. Built St. Thomas school of nursing when she was 40 years old
C. Notes in nursing
D. Notes in hospital
63. What country did Florence Nightingale train in nursing?
A. Belgium
B. US
C. Germany
D. England
64. Which of the following is recognized for developing the concept of HIGH LEVEL WELLNESS?
A. Erikson
B. Madaw
C. Peplau
D. Dunn
65. One of the expectations is for nurses to join professional association primarily because of
A. Promotes advancement and professional growth among its members
B. Works for raising funds for nurse’s benefit
C. Facilitate and establishes acquaintances
D. Assist them and securing jobs abroad
66. Founder of the PNA
A. Julita Sotejo
B. Anastacia Giron Tupas
C. Eufemia Octaviano
D. Anesia Dionisio
67. Which of the following provides that nurses must be a member of a national nurse organization?
A. R.A 877
B. 1981 Code of ethics approved by the house of delegates and the PNA
C. Board resolution No. 1955 Promulgated by the BON
D. RA 7164
68. Which of the following best describes the action of a nurse who documents her nursing diagnosis?
A. She documents it and charts it whenever necessary
B. She can be accused of malpractice
C. She does it regularly as an important responsibility
D. She charts it only when the patient is acutely ill
69. Which of the following does not govern nursing practice?
A. RA 7164
B. RA 9173
C. BON Res. Code Of Ethics
D. BON Res. Scope of Nursing Practice
70. A nurse who is maintaining a private clinic in the community renders service on maternal and child health among the neighborhood for a fee is:
A. Primary care nurse
B. Independent nurse practitioner
C. Nurse-Midwife
D. Nurse specialist
71. When was the PNA founded?
A. September 22, 1922
B. September 02, 1920
C. October 21, 1922
D. September 02, 1922
72. Who was the first president of the PNA ?
A. Anastacia Giron-Tupas
B. Loreto Tupas
C. Rosario Montenegro
D. Ricarda Mendoza
73. Defines health as the ability to maintain internal milieu. Illness according to him/her/them is the failure to maintain internal environment.
A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Leddy and Pepper
D. Roy
74. Postulated that health is a state and process of being and becoming an integrated and whole person.
A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Dunn
D. Roy
75. What regulates HOMEOSTASIS according to the theory of Walter Cannon?
A. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
C. Buffer system
D. Various mechanisms
76. Stated that health is WELLNESS. A termed define by the culture or an individual.
A. Roy
B. Henderson
C. Rogers
D. King
77. Defined health as a dynamic state in the life cycle, and Illness as interference in the life cycle.
A. Roy
B. Henderson
C. Rogers
D. King
78. She defined health as the soundness and wholness of developed human structure and bodily mental functioning.
A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Clark
79. According to her, Wellness is a condition in which all parts and subparts of an individual are in harmony with the whole system.
A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Johnson
80. Postulated that health is reflected by the organization, interaction, interdependence and integration of the subsystem of the behavioral system.
A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Johnson
81. According to them, Well being is a subjective perception of BALANCE, HARMONY and VITALITY
A. Leavell and Clark
B. Peterson and Zderad
C. Benner and Wruber
D. Leddy and Pepper
82. He describes the WELLNESS-ILLNESS Continuum as interaction of the environment with well being and illness.
A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Dunn
D. Clark
83. An integrated method of functioning that is oriented towards maximizing one’s potential within the limitation of the environment.
A. Well being
B. Health
C. Low level Wellness
D. High level Wellness
84. What kind of illness precursor, according to DUNN is cigarette smoking?
A. Heredity
B. Social
C. Behavioral
D. Environmental
85. According to DUNN, Overcrowding is what type of illness precursor?
A. Heredity
B. Social
C. Behavioral
D. Environmental
86. Health belief model was formulated in 1975 by who?
A. Becker
B. Smith
C. Dunn
D. Leavell and Clark
87. In health belief model, Individual perception matters. Which of the following is highly UNLIKELY to influence preventive behavior?
A. Perceived susceptibility to an illness
B. Perceived seriousness of an illness
C. Perceived threat of an illness
D. Perceived curability of an illness
88. Which of the following is not a PERCEIVED BARRIER in preventive action?
A. Difficulty adhering to the lifestyle
B. Economic factors
C. Accessibility of health care facilities
D. Increase adherence to medical therapies
89. Conceptualizes that health is a condition of actualization or realization of person’s potential. Avers that the highest aspiration of people is fulfillment and complete development actualization.
A. Clinical Model
B. Role performance Model
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudaemonistic Model
90. Views people as physiologic system and Absence of sign and symptoms equates health.
A. Clinical Model
B. Role performance Model
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudaemonistic Model
91. Knowledge about the disease and prior contact with it is what type of VARIABLE according to the health belief model?
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action
92. It includes internal and external factors that leads the individual to seek help
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action
93. Influence from peers and social pressure is included in what variable of HBM?
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action
94. Age, Sex, Race etc. is included in what variable of HBM?
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action
95. According to Leavell and Clark’s ecologic model, All of this are factors that affects health and illness except
A. Reservoir
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Host
96. Is a multi dimensional model developed by PENDER that describes the nature of persons as they interact within the environment to pursue health
A. Ecologic Model
B. Health Belief Model
C. Health Promotion Model
D. Health Prevention Model
97. Defined by Pender as all activities directed toward increasing the level of well being and self actualization.
A. Health prevention
B. Health promotion
C. Health teaching
D. Self actualization
98. Defined as an alteration in normal function resulting in reduction of capacities and shortening of life span.
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
99. Personal state in which a person feels unhealthy
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
100. According to her, Caring is defined as a nurturant way of responding to a valued client towards whom the nurse feels a sense of commitment and responsibility.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
Content Outline
1. Professional Nursing
A. Historical perspectives in nursing
B. Nursing as a profession
C. Theories in nursing
D. Health care delivery system
1. The four major concepts in nursing theory are the
A. Person, Environment, Nurse, Health
B. Nurse, Person, Environment, Cure
C. Promotive, Preventive, Curative, Rehabilitative
D. Person, Environment, Nursing, Health
2. The act of utilizing the environment of the patient to assist him in his recovery is theorized by
A. Nightingale
B. Benner
C. Swanson
D. King
3. For her, Nursing is a theoretical system of knowledge that prescribes a process of analysis and action related to care of the ill person
A. King
B. Henderson
C. Roy
D. Leininger
4. According to her, Nursing is a helping or assistive profession to persons who are wholly or partly dependent or when those who are supposedly caring for them are no longer able to give care.
A. Henderson
B. Orem
C. Swanson
D. Neuman
5. Nursing is a unique profession, Concerned with all the variables affecting an individual’s response to stressors, which are intra, inter and extra personal in nature.
A. Neuman
B. Johnson
C. Watson
D. Parse
6. The unique function of the nurse is to assist the individual, sick or well, in the performance of those activities contributing to health that he would perform unaided if he has the necessary strength, will and knowledge, and do this in such a way as to help him gain independence as rapidly as possible.
A. Henderson
B. Abdellah
C. Levin
D. Peplau
7. Caring is the essence and central unifying, a dominant domain that distinguishes nursing from other health disciplines. Care is an essential human need.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
8. Caring involves 5 processes, KNOWING, BEING WITH, DOING FOR, ENABLING and MAINTAINING BELIEF.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
9. Caring is healing, it is communicated through the consciousness of the nurse to the individual being cared for. It allows access to higher human spirit.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
10. Caring means that person, events, projects and things matter to people. It reveals stress and coping options. Caring creates responsibility. It is an inherent feature of nursing practice. It helps the nurse assist clients to recover in the face of the illness.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
11. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about profession according to Marie Jahoda?
A. A profession is an organization of an occupational group based on the application of special knowledge
B. It serves specific interest of a group
C. It is altruistic
D. Quality of work is of greater importance than the rewards
12. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a professional?
A. Concerned with quantity
B. Self directed
C. Committed to spirit of inquiry
D. Independent
13. The most unique characteristic of nursing as a profession is
A. Education
B. Theory
C. Caring
D. Autonomy
14. This is the distinctive individual qualities that differentiate a person to another
A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Charm
D. Character
15. Refers to the moral values and beliefs that are used as guides to personal behavior and actions
A. Philosophy
B. Personality
C. Charm
D. Character
16. As a nurse manager, which of the following best describes this function?
A. Initiate modification on client’s lifestyle
B. Protect client’s right
C. Coordinates the activities of other members of the health team in managing patient care
D. Provide in service education programs, Use accurate nursing audit, formulate philosophy and vision of the institution.
17. What best describes nurses as a care provider?
A. Determine client’s need
B. Provide direct nursing care
C. Help client recognize and cope with stressful psychological situation
D. Works in combined effort with all those involved in patient’s care
18. The nurse questions a doctors order of Morphine sulfate 50 mg, IM for a client with pancreatitis. Which role best fit that statement?
A. Change agent
B. Client advocate
C. Case manager
D. Collaborator
19. These are nursing intervention that requires knowledge, skills and expertise of multiple health professionals.
A. Dependent
B. Independent
C. Interdependent
D. Intradependent
20. What type of patient care model is the most common for student nurses and private duty nurses?
A. Total patient care
B. Team nursing
C. Primary Nursing
D. Case management
21. This is the best patient care model when there are many nurses but few patients.
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care
22. This patient care model works best when there are plenty of patient but few nurses
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care
23. RN assumes 24 hour responsibility for the client to maintain continuity of care across shifts, days or visits.
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Total patient care
24. Who developed the first theory of nursing?
A. Hammurabi
B. Alexander
C. Fabiola
D. Nightingale
25. She introduces the NATURE OF NURSING MODEL.
A. Henderson
B. Nightingale
C. Parse
D. Orlando
26. She described the four conservation principle.
A. Levin
B. Leininger
C. Orlando
D. Parse
27. Proposed the HEALTH CARE SYSTEM MODEL.
A. Henderson
B. Orem
C. Parse
D. Neuman
28. Conceptualized the BEHAVIORAL SYSTEM MODEL
A. Orem
B. Johnson
C. Henderson
D. Parse
29. Developed the CLINICAL NURSING – A HELPING ART MODEL
A. Swanson
B. Hall
C. Weidenbach
D. Zderad
30. Developed the ROLE MODELING and MODELING theory
A. Erickson,Tomlin,Swain
B. Neuman
C. Newman
D. Benner and Wrubel
31. Proposed the GRAND THEORY OF NURSING AS CARING
A. Erickson, Tomlin, Swain
B. Peterson,Zderad
C. Bnner,Wrubel
D. Boykin,Schoenhofer
32. Postulated the INTERPERSONAL ASPECT OF NURSING
A. Travelbee
B. Swanson
C. Zderad
D. Peplau
33. He proposed the theory of morality that is based on MUTUAL TRUST
A. Freud
B. Erikson
C. Kohlberg
D. Peters
34. He proposed the theory of morality based on PRINCIPLES
A. Freud
B. Erikson
C. Kohlberg
D. Peters
35. Freud postulated that child adopts parental standards and traits through
A. Imitation
B. Introjection
C. Identification
D. Regression
36. According to them, Morality is measured of how people treat human being and that a moral child strives to be kind and just
A. Zderad and Peterson
B. Benner and Wrubel
C. Fowler and Westerhoff
D. Schulman and Mekler
37. Postulated that FAITH is the way of behaving. He developed four theories of faith and development based on his experience.
A. Giligan
B. Westerhoff
C. Fowler
D. Freud
38. He described the development of faith. He suggested that faith is a spiritual dimension that gives meaning to a persons life. Faith according to him, is a relational phenomenon.
A. Giligan
B. Westerhoff
C. Fowler
D. Freud
39. Established in 1906 by the Baptist foreign mission society of America. Miss rose nicolet, was it’s first superintendent.
A. St. Paul Hospital School of nursing
B. Iloilo Mission Hospital School of nursing
C. Philippine General Hospital School of nursing
D. St. Luke’s Hospital School of nursing
40. Anastacia Giron-Tupas was the first Filipino nurse to occupy the position of chief nurse in this hospital.
A. St. Paul Hospital
B. Iloilo Mission Hospital
C. Philippine General Hospital
D. St. Luke’s Hospital
41. She was the daughter of Hungarian kings, who feed 300-900 people everyday in their gate, builds hospitals, and care of the poor and sick herself.
A. Elizabeth
B. Catherine
C. Nightingale
D. Sairey Gamp
42. She dies of yellow fever in her search for truth to prove that yellow fever is carried by a mosquitoes.
A. Clara louise Maas
B. Pearl Tucker
C. Isabel Hampton Robb
D. Caroline Hampton Robb
43. He was called the father of sanitation.
A. Abraham
B. Hippocrates
C. Moses
D. Willam Halstead
44. The country where SHUSHURUTU originated
A. China
B. Egypt
C. India
D. Babylonia
45. They put girls clothes on male infants to drive evil forces away
A. Chinese
B. Egyptian
C. Indian
D. Babylonian
46. In what period of nursing does people believe in TREPHINING to drive evil forces away?
A. Dark period
B. Intuitive period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period
47. This period ended when Pastor Fliedner, build Kaiserwerth institute for the training of Deaconesses
A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period
48. Period of nursing where religious Christian orders emerged to take care of the sick
A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period
49. Founded the second order of St. Francis of Assisi
A. St. Catherine
B. St. Anne
C. St. Clare
D. St. Elizabeth
50. This period marked the religious upheaval of Luther, Who questions the Christian faith.
A. Apprentice period
B. Dark period
C. Contemporary period
D. Educative period
51. According to the Biopsychosocial and spiritual theory of Sister Callista Roy, Man, As a SOCIAL being is
A. Like all other men
B. Like some other men
C. Like no other men
D. Like men
52. She conceptualized that man, as an Open system is in constant interaction and transaction with a changing environment.
A. Roy
B. Levin
C. Neuman
D. Newman
53. In a CLOSED system, which of the following is true?
A. Affected by matter
B. A sole island in vast ocean
C. Allows input
D. Constantly affected by matter, energy, information
54. Who postulated the WHOLISTIC concept that the totality is greater than sum of its parts?
A. Roy
B. Rogers
C. Henderson
D. Johnson
55. She theorized that man is composed of sub and supra systems. Subsystems are cells, tissues, organs and systems while the suprasystems are family, society and community.
A. Roy
B. Rogers
C. Henderson
D. Johnson
56. Which of the following is not true about the human needs?
A. Certain needs are common to all people
B. Needs should be followed exactly in accordance with their hierarchy
C. Needs are stimulated by internal factors
D. Needs are stimulated by external factors
57. Which of the following is TRUE about the human needs?
A. May not be deferred
B. Are not interrelated
C. Met in exact and rigid way
D. Priorities are alterable
58. According to Maslow, which of the following is NOT TRUE about a self actualized person?
A. Understands poetry, music, philosophy, science etc.
B. Desires privacy, autonomous
C. Follows the decision of the majority, uphold justice and truth
D. Problem centered
59. According to Maslow, which of the following is TRUE about a self actualized person?
A. Makes decision contrary to public opinion
B. Do not predict events
C. Self centered
D. Maximum degree of self conflict
60. This is the essence of mental health
A. Self awareness
B. Self actualization
C. Self esteem
D. Self worth
61. Florence nightingale is born in
A. Germany
B. Britain
C. France
D. Italy
62. Which is unlikely of Florence Nightingale?
A. Born May 12, 1840
B. Built St. Thomas school of nursing when she was 40 years old
C. Notes in nursing
D. Notes in hospital
63. What country did Florence Nightingale train in nursing?
A. Belgium
B. US
C. Germany
D. England
64. Which of the following is recognized for developing the concept of HIGH LEVEL WELLNESS?
A. Erikson
B. Madaw
C. Peplau
D. Dunn
65. One of the expectations is for nurses to join professional association primarily because of
A. Promotes advancement and professional growth among its members
B. Works for raising funds for nurse’s benefit
C. Facilitate and establishes acquaintances
D. Assist them and securing jobs abroad
66. Founder of the PNA
A. Julita Sotejo
B. Anastacia Giron Tupas
C. Eufemia Octaviano
D. Anesia Dionisio
67. Which of the following provides that nurses must be a member of a national nurse organization?
A. R.A 877
B. 1981 Code of ethics approved by the house of delegates and the PNA
C. Board resolution No. 1955 Promulgated by the BON
D. RA 7164
68. Which of the following best describes the action of a nurse who documents her nursing diagnosis?
A. She documents it and charts it whenever necessary
B. She can be accused of malpractice
C. She does it regularly as an important responsibility
D. She charts it only when the patient is acutely ill
69. Which of the following does not govern nursing practice?
A. RA 7164
B. RA 9173
C. BON Res. Code Of Ethics
D. BON Res. Scope of Nursing Practice
70. A nurse who is maintaining a private clinic in the community renders service on maternal and child health among the neighborhood for a fee is:
A. Primary care nurse
B. Independent nurse practitioner
C. Nurse-Midwife
D. Nurse specialist
71. When was the PNA founded?
A. September 22, 1922
B. September 02, 1920
C. October 21, 1922
D. September 02, 1922
72. Who was the first president of the PNA ?
A. Anastacia Giron-Tupas
B. Loreto Tupas
C. Rosario Montenegro
D. Ricarda Mendoza
73. Defines health as the ability to maintain internal milieu. Illness according to him/her/them is the failure to maintain internal environment.
A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Leddy and Pepper
D. Roy
74. Postulated that health is a state and process of being and becoming an integrated and whole person.
A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Dunn
D. Roy
75. What regulates HOMEOSTASIS according to the theory of Walter Cannon?
A. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
C. Buffer system
D. Various mechanisms
76. Stated that health is WELLNESS. A termed define by the culture or an individual.
A. Roy
B. Henderson
C. Rogers
D. King
77. Defined health as a dynamic state in the life cycle, and Illness as interference in the life cycle.
A. Roy
B. Henderson
C. Rogers
D. King
78. She defined health as the soundness and wholness of developed human structure and bodily mental functioning.
A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Clark
79. According to her, Wellness is a condition in which all parts and subparts of an individual are in harmony with the whole system.
A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Johnson
80. Postulated that health is reflected by the organization, interaction, interdependence and integration of the subsystem of the behavioral system.
A. Orem
B. Henderson
C. Neuman
D. Johnson
81. According to them, Well being is a subjective perception of BALANCE, HARMONY and VITALITY
A. Leavell and Clark
B. Peterson and Zderad
C. Benner and Wruber
D. Leddy and Pepper
82. He describes the WELLNESS-ILLNESS Continuum as interaction of the environment with well being and illness.
A. Cannon
B. Bernard
C. Dunn
D. Clark
83. An integrated method of functioning that is oriented towards maximizing one’s potential within the limitation of the environment.
A. Well being
B. Health
C. Low level Wellness
D. High level Wellness
84. What kind of illness precursor, according to DUNN is cigarette smoking?
A. Heredity
B. Social
C. Behavioral
D. Environmental
85. According to DUNN, Overcrowding is what type of illness precursor?
A. Heredity
B. Social
C. Behavioral
D. Environmental
86. Health belief model was formulated in 1975 by who?
A. Becker
B. Smith
C. Dunn
D. Leavell and Clark
87. In health belief model, Individual perception matters. Which of the following is highly UNLIKELY to influence preventive behavior?
A. Perceived susceptibility to an illness
B. Perceived seriousness of an illness
C. Perceived threat of an illness
D. Perceived curability of an illness
88. Which of the following is not a PERCEIVED BARRIER in preventive action?
A. Difficulty adhering to the lifestyle
B. Economic factors
C. Accessibility of health care facilities
D. Increase adherence to medical therapies
89. Conceptualizes that health is a condition of actualization or realization of person’s potential. Avers that the highest aspiration of people is fulfillment and complete development actualization.
A. Clinical Model
B. Role performance Model
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudaemonistic Model
90. Views people as physiologic system and Absence of sign and symptoms equates health.
A. Clinical Model
B. Role performance Model
C. Adaptive Model
D. Eudaemonistic Model
91. Knowledge about the disease and prior contact with it is what type of VARIABLE according to the health belief model?
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action
92. It includes internal and external factors that leads the individual to seek help
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action
93. Influence from peers and social pressure is included in what variable of HBM?
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action
94. Age, Sex, Race etc. is included in what variable of HBM?
A. Demographic
B. Sociopsychologic
C. Structural
D. Cues to action
95. According to Leavell and Clark’s ecologic model, All of this are factors that affects health and illness except
A. Reservoir
B. Agent
C. Environment
D. Host
96. Is a multi dimensional model developed by PENDER that describes the nature of persons as they interact within the environment to pursue health
A. Ecologic Model
B. Health Belief Model
C. Health Promotion Model
D. Health Prevention Model
97. Defined by Pender as all activities directed toward increasing the level of well being and self actualization.
A. Health prevention
B. Health promotion
C. Health teaching
D. Self actualization
98. Defined as an alteration in normal function resulting in reduction of capacities and shortening of life span.
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
99. Personal state in which a person feels unhealthy
A. Illness
B. Disease
C. Health
D. Wellness
100. According to her, Caring is defined as a nurturant way of responding to a valued client towards whom the nurse feels a sense of commitment and responsibility.
A. Benner
B. Watson
C. Leininger
D. Swanson
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